APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.28
As stated in the Preamble to the Constitution of India, India is a
- (1)Sovereign Secular Socialist Democratic Republic
- (2)Socialist Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
- (3)Secular Sovereign Democratic Socialist Republic
- (4)Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
భారత రాజ్యాంగ ప్రవేశికలో (ప్రీయంబుల్‌లో) తెలిపిన విధముగా, భారత్‌ ఒక
- (1)సర్వసత్తాక లౌకిక సామ్యవాద ప్రజాస్వామ్య గణతంత్ర రాజ్యము
- (2)సామ్యవాద సర్వసత్తాక లౌకిక ప్రజాస్వామ్య గణతంత్ర రాజ్యము
- (3)లౌకిక సర్వసత్తాక ప్రజాస్వామ్య సామ్యవాద గణతంత్ర రాజ్యము
- (4)సర్వసత్తాక సామ్యవాద లౌకిక ప్రజాస్వామ్య గణతంత్ర రాజ్యము
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (4) Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
Why (4) is correct: Exact order in the Preamble (after the 42nd Amendment, 1976): Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic.
Why the others are wrong:
- (1),(2),(3) Wrong order of the five words.
Concept: Socialist and Secular were added by the 42nd Amendment, 1976. Original 1949 text: Sovereign Democratic Republic.
Source: Preamble (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.29
How many Fundamental Duties are stated in Article 51A of the Constitution?
- (1)9
- (2)10
- (3)11
- (4)12
రాజ్యాంగములోని ఆర్టికల్‌ 51A లో ఎన్ని ప్రాథమిక విధులు తెలుపబడినవి?
- (1)9
- (2)10
- (3)11
- (4)12
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (3) 11
Why (3) is correct: Article 51A lists 11 Fundamental Duties. Originally 10 (42nd Amendment, 1976); the 11th (86th Amendment, 2002) is the duty of parents/guardians to provide education to children aged 6–14.
Why the others are wrong:
- (1),(2) Counts before the 86th Amendment.
- (4) There is no 12th duty.
Concept: Duties are non-justiciable. Part IVA. Swaran Singh Committee recommended them.
Source: Fundamental Duties (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.30
In India, any violation to the right to property cannot be challenged by filing a
- (1)Writ under Article 226 of the Constitution
- (2)Civil suit before a Court
- (3)Writ under Article 32 of the Constitution
- (4)Case before Lok Adalat
భారత దేశంలో అస్తి హక్కుకి భంగం కలిగినట్టైతే, క్రింది దానిని దాఖలు చేయడం ద్వారా సవాలు చేయలేము?
- (1)రాజ్యాంగములోని ఆర్టికల్‌ 226 క్రింద రిట్‌
- (2)న్యాయస్థానములో సివిల్‌ వ్యాజ్యము
- (3)రాజ్యాంగములోని ఆర్టికల్‌ 32 క్రింద రిట్‌
- (4)లోక్‌ అదాలత్‌లో వ్యాజ్యము
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (3) Writ under Article 32 of the Constitution
Why (3) is correct: Right to property ceased to be a Fundamental Right after the 44th Amendment (1978). It is now a constitutional/legal right under Article 300A. Article 32 is only for Fundamental Rights, so a property violation cannot be taken to the Supreme Court under Art 32.
Why the others are wrong:
- (1) High Court writ under Art 226 can still be used for legal rights, including property.
- (2) A civil suit is the ordinary remedy.
- (4) Lok Adalat can take civil disputes including property.
Concept: Art 19(1)(f) and Art 31 were deleted; Art 300A says no person shall be deprived of property save by authority of law.
Source: Right to property (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.31
According to Article 248 of the Indian Constitution, Residuary Power is vested with the
- (1)Parliament
- (2)States
- (3)Union and States jointly
- (4)President
భారత రాజ్యాంగములోని ఆర్టికల్‌ 248 ప్రకారము, అవశేషాధికారములు క్రింది దానికి ఇవ్వబడ్డాయి?
- (1)పార్లమెంట్‌
- (2)రాష్ట్రములు
- (3)కేంద్రము మరియు రాష్ట్రములు సమిష్టిగా
- (4)రాష్ట్రపతి
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (1) Parliament
Why (1) is correct: Article 248: Parliament has exclusive power to make laws on any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent or State Lists (residuary), including residuary taxes.
Why the others are wrong:
- (2) In the US, residuary powers lie with the States; India is the opposite.
- (3) Residuary is not joint.
- (4) President has no legislative residuary power.
Concept: Seventh Schedule: Union, State, Concurrent Lists. Residuary with Centre is a unitary feature.
Source: Seventh Schedule (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.32
How many times can a person be elected as the President of India?
- (1)Once
- (2)No restriction
- (3)Twice
- (4)Two terms consecutively
ఒక వ్యక్తిని భారత రాష్ట్రపతిగా ఎన్ని పర్యాయములు ఎన్నిక చేయవచ్చును?
- (1)ఒకసారి
- (2)ఏ పరిమితి లేదు
- (3)రెండు సార్లు
- (4)వెంటవెంటనే రెండు సార్లు
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (2) No restriction
Why (2) is correct: The Constitution places no limit on the number of times a person may be elected President (Art 57: eligibility for re-election).
Why the others are wrong:
- (1),(3),(4) The US has a two-term limit (22nd Amendment); India does not.
Concept: Rajendra Prasad served two terms. Art 52–62 deal with the President.
Source: President of India (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.33
In which case did the Supreme Court deliver the landmark judgement dealing with imposition of President’s Rule in the States?
- (1)Golaknath
- (2)Maneka Gandhi
- (3)Minerva Mills
- (4)S.R. Bommai
ఏ వ్యాజ్యములో రాష్ట్రాలలో రాష్ట్రపతి పాలన విధించే అంశంపై మైలురాయి వంటి తీర్పుని అత్యున్నత న్యాయస్థానము ఇచ్చింది?
- (1)గోలక్‌నాథ్‌
- (2)మేనకా గాంధీ
- (3)మినర్వా మిల్స్‌
- (4)ఎస్‌.ఆర్‌. బొమ్మై
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (4) S.R. Bommai
Why (4) is correct: S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994) held that Art 356 proclamations are subject to judicial review; floor test is the proper test of majority; secularism is basic structure.
Why the others are wrong:
- (1) Golaknath (1967): Parliament cannot amend Fundamental Rights.
- (2) Maneka Gandhi (1978): expanded Art 21.
- (3) Minerva Mills (1980): balance of FR and DPSP.
Concept: Art 356: failure of constitutional machinery in a State.
Source: S.R. Bommai (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.34
For altering the boundary of a State or for creation of a new State,
- (1)Concurrence of the affected State Assembly is required
- (2)Views of the affected State Assembly are to be sought by the President
- (3)Two-thirds majority of the affected State Assembly is required
- (4)Affected State has to make a recommendation to the Lok Sabha
ఒక రాష్ట్రము యొక్క సరిహద్దులను మార్చుటకు గాని లేక ఒక క్రొత్త రాష్ట్రమును ఏర్పాటు చేయుటకు గాని
- (1)ప్రభావితమయ్యే రాష్ట్ర విధానసభ అంగీకారము కావాలి
- (2)ప్రభావితమయ్యే రాష్ట్ర విధానసభ అభిప్రాయాన్ని రాష్ట్రపతి అడగాలి
- (3)ప్రభావితమయ్యే రాష్ట్ర విధానసభలో మూడింట రెండు వంతుల మెజారిటీ కావాలి
- (4)ప్రభావితమయ్యే రాష్ట్రము లోక్‌సభకు సిఫార్సు చేయాలి
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (2) Views of the affected State Assembly are to be sought by the President
Why (2) is correct: Article 3: Parliament may form a new State or alter boundaries. The Bill is introduced only on the President’s recommendation, and the President refers it to the affected State Legislature for expressing its views. Those views are not binding.
Why the others are wrong:
- (1),(3) Concurrence or special majority of the State is not required.
- (4) The State does not recommend to the Lok Sabha.
Concept: Art 3 Bill needs only simple majority in Parliament (not Art 368).
Source: Article 3 (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.35
Which one of the following writs can be filed against a private person also?
- (1)Quo warranto
- (2)Certiorari
- (3)Habeas Corpus
- (4)Mandamus
ఈ క్రింది వాటిలో ఏ రిట్‌ని ప్రైవేట్‌ వ్యక్తిపై కూడా దాఖలు చేయవచ్చును?
- (1)క్వో వారంటో
- (2)సర్షియోరారి
- (3)హెబియస్‌ కార్పస్‌
- (4)మాండమస్‌
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (3) Habeas Corpus
Why (3) is correct: Habeas Corpus can issue against a private person who illegally detains another, as well as against the State.
Why the others are wrong:
- (1) Quo warranto challenges a public office held without authority.
- (2) Certiorari quashes a judicial/quasi-judicial order of a public authority.
- (4) Mandamus commands a public authority to perform a duty.
Concept: Five writs under Arts 32 and 226: HC, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, Quo Warranto.
Source: Habeas corpus (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.36
The day which is celebrated as the Constitution Day in India is
- (1)January 26
- (2)January 30
- (3)August 15
- (4)November 26
క్రింది వాటిలో ఏ రోజు రాజ్యాంగ దినముగా జరుపబడుతున్నది?
- (1)26 జనవరి
- (2)30 జనవరి
- (3)15 ఆగస్టు
- (4)26 నవంబర్‌
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (4) November 26
Why (4) is correct: Constitution Day (Samvidhan Divas) is 26 November — the day the Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution in 1949. Observed since 2015.
Why the others are wrong:
- (1) 26 January = Republic Day (Constitution came into force, 1950).
- (2) 30 January = Martyrs’ Day.
- (3) 15 August = Independence Day.
Concept: Came into force 26 Jan 1950. Drafting Committee chaired by B.R. Ambedkar.
Source: Constitution Day (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.37
Which one of the following does not indicate a prominent federal feature of the Indian State?
- (1)Allocation of financial resources
- (2)Independent judiciary
- (3)Supremacy of the Constitution
- (4)Distribution of powers
ఈ క్రింది వాటిలో ఏది భారత రాజ్యములో ప్రముఖమైన సమాఖ్య లక్షణమును సూచించుట లేదు?
- (1)ఆర్థిక వనరుల కేటాయింపు
- (2)స్వతంత్ర న్యాయవ్యవస్థ
- (3)రాజ్యాంగపు ఆధిపత్యము
- (4)అధికారముల పంపిణీ
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (1) Allocation of financial resources
Why (1) is correct: Independent judiciary, supremacy of the Constitution and distribution of powers are classic federal features. Mere allocation of financial resources also occurs in unitary States and is not by itself treated as a prominent federal feature in this paper’s key.
Why the others are wrong:
- (2),(3),(4) These are standard federal features.
Concept: Unitary tilt: strong Centre, single citizenship, All-India Services, emergency provisions.
Source: Federalism in India (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.38
In the words of K.C. Wheare, a constitutional expert, India is
- (1)a cooperative federation
- (2)a quasi-federation
- (3)a strong union
- (4)not a federation
రాజ్యాంగ నిపుణుడు కె.సి. వీర్‌ మాటల్లో, భారత్‌ ఒక
- (1)సహకార సమాఖ్య
- (2)క్వాసి-సమాఖ్య (quasi-federation)
- (3)బలమైన కేంద్రం
- (4)సమాఖ్య కాదు
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (2) a quasi-federation
Why (2) is correct: K.C. Wheare described India as a quasi-federation — federal in form but unitary in spirit.
Why the others are wrong:
- (1) ‘Cooperative federalism’ is a later description (Granville Austin and others), not Wheare’s phrase.
- (3),(4) Not Wheare’s characterisation.
Concept: Art 1: “Union of States”. Other labels: quasi-federal (Wheare), cooperative federalism (Austin).
Source: Federalism in India (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.39
In which year did the right to education come into force as a fundamental right?
- (1)2001
- (2)2002
- (3)2009
- (4)2010
విద్యా హక్కు ప్రాథమిక హక్కుగా ఏ సంవత్సరంలో అమలులోకి వచ్చింది?
- (1)2001
- (2)2002
- (3)2009
- (4)2010
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (4) 2010
Why (4) is correct: The 86th Amendment (2002) inserted Article 21A, but it came into force only on 1 April 2010, together with the RTE Act, 2009.
Why the others are wrong:
- (2) 2002 = year of the constitutional amendment, not commencement.
- (3) 2009 = year the RTE Act was enacted.
- (1) Not relevant.
Concept: Art 21A: free and compulsory education for children aged 6–14. Linked Fundamental Duty Art 51A(k).
Source: RTE Act (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.40
The reason for the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament being headed by a member of the opposition party in the Lok Sabha is
- (1)Rules framed by the Government
- (2)Convention
- (3)Rules of Procedure of Parliament
- (4)Presidential order
పార్లమెంట్‌ యొక్క పబ్లిక్‌ అక్కౌంట్స్‌ కమిటీకి ప్రతిపక్ష పార్టీకి చెందిన లోక్‌సభ సభ్యుడు అధ్యక్షత వహించుటకు కారణము?
- (1)ప్రభుత్వము రూపొందించిన నియమములు
- (2)సంప్రదాయము
- (3)పార్లమెంట్‌ పద్ధతి నియమాలు
- (4)రాష్ట్రపతి ఆదేశము
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (2) Convention
Why (2) is correct: PAC being chaired by a Lok Sabha opposition member is a convention (since 1967), not a statutory rule.
Why the others are wrong:
- (1),(3),(4) Not mandated by government rules, Rules of Procedure, or Presidential order.
Concept: PAC: 22 members (15 LS + 7 RS). Examines CAG reports. Estimates Committee is usually chaired by a ruling-party member.
Source: PAC (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.41
How many members are from the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha respectively in the Parliamentary Committee on Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes?
- (1)15, 15
- (2)15, 10
- (3)20, 10
- (4)10, 10
షెడ్యూల్డ్‌ కులముల మరియు షెడ్యూల్డ్‌ తెగల సంక్షేమముపై పార్లమెంటరీ కమిటీలో లోక్‌సభ మరియు రాజ్యసభ నుండి వరుసగా ఎంతమంది సభ్యులు?
- (1)15, 15
- (2)15, 10
- (3)20, 10
- (4)10, 10
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (3) 20, 10
Why (3) is correct: The Committee on Welfare of SCs and STs has 30 members: 20 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha.
Why the others are wrong:
- (1),(2),(4) Wrong split.
Concept: Similar pattern: Committee on Welfare of Other Backward Classes also 30 (20+10).
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.42
The Model Code of Conduct for elections is issued by the Election Commission as per
- (1)Rules in the Constitution
- (2)Rules in the Indian Penal Code
- (3)Issued for voluntary compliance
- (4)Rules laid down in the Representation of the People Act
ఎన్నికల మోడల్‌ కోడ్‌ ఆఫ్‌ కండక్ట్‌ను ఎన్నికల సంఘం దేని ప్రకారం జారీ చేస్తుంది?
- (1)రాజ్యాంగంలోని నియమాలు
- (2)భారత శిక్షాస్మృతిలోని నియమాలు
- (3)స్వచ్ఛంద అనుసరణ కోసం జారీ
- (4)ప్రజా ప్రాతినిధ్య చట్టంలోని నియమాలు
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (3) Issued for voluntary compliance
Why (3) is correct: The MCC is a set of guidelines issued by the ECI for voluntary compliance by parties and candidates. It is not a statute (though some MCC breaches may also attract RPA/IPC provisions).
Why the others are wrong:
- (1) Constitution does not prescribe the MCC.
- (2) IPC is a criminal code, not the source of MCC.
- (4) RPA, 1950/1951 does not enact the MCC text.
Concept: ECI draws authority from Art 324. MCC comes into force on announcement of the election schedule.
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.43
President’s Rule is declared under which Article of the Constitution?
- (1)Article 356
- (2)Article 358
- (3)Article 360
- (4)Article 352
రాష్ట్రపతి పాలన రాజ్యాంగంలోని ఏ ఆర్టికల్‌ క్రింద ప్రకటించబడుతుంది?
- (1)ఆర్టికల్‌ 356
- (2)ఆర్టికల్‌ 358
- (3)ఆర్టికల్‌ 360
- (4)ఆర్టికల్‌ 352
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (1) Article 356
Why (1) is correct: Article 356: proclamation on failure of constitutional machinery in a State (President’s Rule).
Why the others are wrong:
- (2) Art 358: automatic suspension of Art 19 rights during a national emergency (Art 352).
- (3) Art 360: Financial Emergency.
- (4) Art 352: National Emergency (war, external aggression, armed rebellion).
Concept: Art 355: Union’s duty to protect States. Bommai case limits misuse of Art 356.
Source: President’s rule (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.44
Article 32 of the Constitution
- (1)can be amended with simple majority
- (2)Cannot be amended
- (3)Can be amended with two-thirds majority
- (4)can be amended with ratification by the States
రాజ్యాంగములోని ఆర్టికల్‌ 32
- (1)సాధారణ మెజారిటీతో సవరించవచ్చు
- (2)సవరించలేము
- (3)మూడింట రెండు వంతుల మెజారిటీతో సవరించవచ్చు
- (4)రాష్ట్రాల అనుమోదంతో సవరించవచ్చు
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (2) Cannot be amended
Why (2) is correct: Ambedkar called Art 32 the “heart and soul” of the Constitution. Under the basic-structure doctrine (Kesavananda Bharati), the right to constitutional remedies cannot be taken away; the paper’s key treats Art 32 as cannot be amended in that sense. [Flag: some texts say it can be amended under Art 368 but not abrogated.]
Why the others are wrong:
- (1) Simple majority is for ordinary laws / some schedules, not Art 32.
- (3),(4) Formal Art 368 routes exist on paper, but basic structure bars stripping Art 32.
Concept: Art 32 itself is a Fundamental Right. Art 226 is the High Court counterpart and is not a FR.
Source: Article 32 (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.45
Which of these Fundamental Rights is available only to a citizen of India?
- (1)Rights under Article 19
- (2)Rights under Article 25
- (3)Rights under Article 21
- (4)Rights under Article 14
ఈ క్రింది ప్రాథమిక హక్కుల్లో ఏది భారత పౌరులకు మాత్రమే లభ్యము?
- (1)ఆర్టికల్‌ 19 క్రింద హక్కులు
- (2)ఆర్టికల్‌ 25 క్రింద హక్కులు
- (3)ఆర్టికల్‌ 21 క్రింద హక్కులు
- (4)ఆర్టికల్‌ 14 క్రింద హక్కులు
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (1) Rights under Article 19
Why (1) is correct: Article 19 (six freedoms) is available only to citizens. Arts 14, 21 and 25 are available to all persons.
Why the others are wrong:
- (2) Art 25 (freedom of religion) — all persons.
- (3) Art 21 (life and personal liberty) — all persons.
- (4) Art 14 (equality before law) — all persons.
Concept: Citizen-only FRs: Arts 15, 16, 19, 29, 30. Person-available: Arts 14, 20, 21, 21A, 22, 23, 24, 25–28.
Source: Fundamental rights (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.46
It is believed that Fundamental Duties have been introduced in the Constitution upon recommendation by this Committee
- (1)Swaran Singh Committee
- (2)Narasimha Rao Committee
- (3)Chavan Committee
- (4)Buta Singh Committee
ప్రాథమిక విధులు ఈ కమిటీ సిఫార్సు మేరకు రాజ్యాంగంలో చేర్చబడినవని నమ్ముతారు
- (1)స్వర్ణ సింగ్‌ కమిటీ
- (2)నరసింహా రావు కమిటీ
- (3)చవాన్‌ కమిటీ
- (4)బూటా సింగ్‌ కమిటీ
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (1) Swaran Singh Committee
Why (1) is correct: The Swaran Singh Committee (1976) recommended Fundamental Duties; the 42nd Amendment added Part IVA (Art 51A).
Why the others are wrong:
- (2),(3),(4) Not the committee linked to Fundamental Duties.
Concept: Originally 10 duties; 11th added by 86th Amendment, 2002.
Source: Fundamental Duties (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.47
Decisions of Inter-State Council are taken by
- (1)Consensus
- (2)Simple majority from the members present
- (3)Two-thirds majority from the members present
- (4)Three-fourths majority from the members present
అంతర్రాష్ట్ర మండలి నిర్ణయాలు ఏ విధంగా తీసుకోబడతాయి?
- (1)సమ్మతి (కన్సెన్సస్) ద్వారా
- (2)హాజరైన సభ్యుల సాధారణ మెజారిటీ
- (3)హాజరైన సభ్యుల్లో మూడింట రెండు వంతులు
- (4)హాజరైన సభ్యుల్లో నాలుగింట మూడు వంతులు
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (1) Consensus
Why (1) is correct: The Inter-State Council (Art 263) takes decisions by consensus.
Why the others are wrong:
- (2),(3),(4) No voting majorities are prescribed for ISC decisions.
Concept: Set up by Presidential order on Sarkaria Commission recommendation (1990). Chaired by the Prime Minister.
Source: Inter-State Council (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.48
Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution are adopted on the lines of the Constitution of
- (1)Germany
- (2)USSR
- (3)Ireland
- (4)Canada
భారత రాజ్యాంగంలోని ప్రాథమిక విధులు ఏ దేశ రాజ్యాంగం ఆధారంగా స్వీకరించబడ్డాయి?
- (1)జర్మనీ
- (2)USSR (సోవియట్‌ యూనియన్‌)
- (3)ఐర్లాండ్‌
- (4)కెనడా
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (2) USSR
Why (2) is correct: Fundamental Duties were inspired by the Constitution of the erstwhile USSR.
Why the others are wrong:
- (1) Germany: influenced emergency provisions / suspension of rights.
- (3) Ireland: Directive Principles of State Policy.
- (4) Canada: federation with a strong Centre / residuary with Centre.
Concept: Other borrowings: UK — parliamentary govt; US — judicial review, FR; France — Republic, ideals in Preamble.
Source: Fundamental Duties (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.49
In the case of Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association, which of the following judges upheld the Constitutional Amendment for creation of National Judicial Appointments Commission?
- (1)Justice J.S. Khehar
- (2)Justice M.B. Lokur
- (3)Justice J. Chelameswar
- (4)Justice Kurian Joseph
సుప్రీంకోర్ట్‌ అడ్వకేట్స్‌-ఆన్‌-రికార్డ్‌ అసోసియేషన్‌ కేసులో, జాతీయ న్యాయ నియామకాల కమిషన్‌ (NJAC) కోసం రాజ్యాంగ సవరణను ఏ న్యాయమూర్తి సమర్థించారు?
- (1)జస్టిస్‌ జె.ఎస్‌. ఖేహర్‌
- (2)జస్టిస్‌ ఎం.బి. లోకూర్‌
- (3)జస్టిస్‌ జె. చలమేశ్వర్‌
- (4)జస్టిస్‌ కురియన్‌ జోసెఫ్‌
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (3) Justice J. Chelameswar
Why (3) is correct: In the NJAC case (2015), a 4:1 majority struck down the 99th Amendment. Justice J. Chelameswar was the lone dissent who upheld the NJAC amendment. [Flag: confirm against key if available.]
Why the others are wrong:
- (1),(2),(4) These judges were in the majority that struck down NJAC.
Concept: 99th Amendment + NJAC Act, 2014 sought to replace the collegium. Struck down as violating judicial independence (basic structure).
Source: NJAC (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.50
As recommended by Justice M.M. Punchhi Commission on Centre-State relations, the Governor of a State shall have
- (1)a tenure fixed for 3 years
- (2)no fixed tenure
- (3)a tenure determined by the State Assembly
- (4)a tenure fixed for 5 years
న్యాయమూర్తి ఎం.ఎం. పుంచ్చి కమిషన్‌ (కేంద్ర-రాష్ట్ర సంబంధాలు) సిఫార్సు ప్రకారం, రాష్ట్ర గవర్నర్‌కు ఉండాల్సినది
- (1)3 సంవత్సరాల నిర్ణీత కాలం
- (2)నిర్ణీత కాలం లేదు
- (3)రాష్ట్ర అసెంబ్లీ నిర్ణయించే కాలం
- (4)5 సంవత్సరాల నిర్ణీత కాలం
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (4) a tenure fixed for 5 years
Why (4) is correct: The Punchhi Commission (2010) recommended a fixed tenure of five years for Governors.
Why the others are wrong:
- (1) 3 years was not its recommendation.
- (2) Currently Governors hold office during the pleasure of the President (Art 156) — Punchhi wanted this changed.
- (3) State Assembly does not fix the Governor’s tenure.
Concept: Sarkaria Commission (1983–88) also dealt with Centre-State relations and the Governor’s role.
Source: Punchhi Commission (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.51
The following is not one of the Directive Principles in the Constitution
- (1)Increasing international trade
- (2)Prohibition of cow slaughter
- (3)Equal pay for equal work of men and women
- (4)Separation of Judiciary from Executive
క్రింది వాటిలో ఏది రాజ్యాంగంలోని ఆదేశిక సూత్రాల్లో ఒకటి కాదు?
- (1)అంతర్జాతీయ వాణిజ్యం పెంచడం
- (2)ఆవుల వధ నిషేధం
- (3)స్త్రీ పురుషులకు సమాన పనికి సమాన వేతనం
- (4)కార్యనిర్వాహక వర్గం నుండి న్యాయవ్యవస్థ వేర్పాటు
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (1) Increasing international trade
Why (1) is correct: Increasing international trade is not a DPSP. The others are: Art 48 (cow slaughter), Art 39(d) (equal pay), Art 50 (separation of judiciary from executive).
Why the others are wrong:
- (2),(3),(4) These are Directive Principles.
Concept: DPSPs: Part IV, Arts 36–51. Non-justiciable. Borrowed from Ireland.
Source: Directive Principles (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.52
Which Article of the Directive Principles of the Constitution mentions about empowering Village Panchayats?
- (1)Article 38
- (2)Article 39
- (3)Article 40
- (4)Article 41
ఆదేశిక సూత్రాల్లో గ్రామ పంచాయతీలను శక్తివంతం చేయడం గురించి ఏ ఆర్టికల్‌ ప్రస్తావిస్తుంది?
- (1)ఆర్టికల్‌ 38
- (2)ఆర్టికల్‌ 39
- (3)ఆర్టికల్‌ 40
- (4)ఆర్టికల్‌ 41
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (3) Article 40
Why (3) is correct: Article 40: State shall take steps to organise village panchayats and endow them with powers of self-government.
Why the others are wrong:
- (1) Art 38: social order / welfare state / minimise inequalities.
- (2) Art 39: livelihood, equal pay, wealth concentration, etc.
- (4) Art 41: right to work, education and public assistance.
Concept: 73rd Amendment (1992) gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj (Part IX, Arts 243–243O).
Source: Directive Principles (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.53
Who circulated a questionnaire on Uniform Civil Code in October, 2016 to solicit opinions from the public at large?
- (1)Ministry of Law and Justice
- (2)National Commission for Minorities
- (3)National Human Rights Commission
- (4)National Law Commission
2016 అక్టోబర్‌లో ఏకరీతి పౌర నియమావళి (UCC)పై ప్రజాభిప్రాయం కోరుతూ ప్రశ్నావళిని ఎవరు పంపిణీ చేశారు?
- (1)న్యాయ మరియు న్యాయపాలన మంత్రిత్వ శాఖ
- (2)జాతీయ అల్పసంఖ్యాకుల కమిషన్‌
- (3)జాతీయ మానవ హక్కుల కమిషన్‌
- (4)జాతీయ న్యాయ కమిషన్‌ (లా కమిషన్‌)
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (4) National Law Commission
Why (4) is correct: The Law Commission of India circulated a UCC questionnaire in October 2016 seeking public views.
Why the others are wrong:
- (1),(2),(3) Not the body that issued that questionnaire.
Concept: Art 44 (DPSP): State shall endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil Code. Goa has a form of common civil code.
Source: Uniform Civil Code (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.54
As per the Constitution, a Union Minister shall hold office during the pleasure of the
- (1)Prime Minister
- (2)President of Ruling party
- (3)President
- (4)Leader of the House
రాజ్యాంగం ప్రకారం, కేంద్ర మంత్రి ఎవరి ఇష్టానుసారం పదవిలో ఉంటారు?
- (1)ప్రధానమంత్రి
- (2)పాలక పార్టీ అధ్యక్షుడు
- (3)రాష్ట్రపతి
- (4)సభా నాయకుడు
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (3) President
Why (3) is correct: Article 75(2): Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President.
Why the others are wrong:
- (1) PM advises, but constitutional pleasure is of the President.
- (2),(4) Not constitutional authorities for this purpose.
Concept: Art 75(3): Council of Ministers collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. Same pattern for States under Art 164.
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.55
As per the Constitution, the Council of Union Ministers is collectively responsible to
- (1)Both the Houses of Parliament
- (2)The President
- (3)The Ruling Party
- (4)The Lok Sabha
రాజ్యాంగం ప్రకారం, కేంద్ర మంత్రి మండలి సమష్టిగా ఎవరికి బాధ్యత వహిస్తుంది?
- (1)పార్లమెంట్‌ రెండు సభలు
- (2)రాష్ట్రపతి
- (3)పాలక పార్టీ
- (4)లోక్‌సభ
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (4) The Lok Sabha
Why (4) is correct: Article 75(3): the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
Why the others are wrong:
- (1) Not to both Houses.
- (2) They hold office during President’s pleasure, but collective responsibility is to LS.
- (3) Political, not constitutional.
Concept: Collective responsibility → no-confidence motion only in Lok Sabha. Individual responsibility also exists.
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.56
In which category was Sachin Tendulkar nominated as the member of the Rajya Sabha?
- (1)Literature
- (2)Arts
- (3)Science
- (4)Social Service
సచిన్‌ టెండూల్కర్‌ రాజ్యసభకు ఏ వర్గం కింద నామినేట్‌ అయ్యారు?
- (1)సాహిత్యం
- (2)కళలు (Arts)
- (3)విజ్ఞానం
- (4)సామాజిక సేవ
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (2) Arts
Why (2) is correct: Article 80(3) / Art 80(1)(a): President nominates 12 Rajya Sabha members from literature, science, art and social service. Sachin Tendulkar was nominated under Arts (2012).
Why the others are wrong:
- (1),(3),(4) Wrong category for his nomination.
Concept: Nominated members: same term (6 years) and voting rights as elected RS members (except in Presidential election? Actually they vote in Presidential election). They cannot vote in RS Deputy Chairman election? They have voting rights in RS.
Source: Nominated RS members (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.57
Whose decision is final in deciding whether a bill is a money bill or not?
- (1)The President
- (2)The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
- (3)The Finance Minister
- (4)The Supreme Court
ఒక బిల్లు మనీ బిల్లు అవుతుందో లేదో నిర్ణయించడంలో ఎవరి నిర్ణయం అంతిమము?
- (1)రాష్ట్రపతి
- (2)లోక్‌సభ స్పీకర్‌
- (3)ఆర్థిక మంత్రి
- (4)సుప్రీంకోర్టు
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (2) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Why (2) is correct: Article 110(3): the decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is final on whether a Bill is a Money Bill.
Why the others are wrong:
- (1) President gives assent but does not certify Money Bill status.
- (3) Finance Minister has no such power.
- (4) Courts have traditionally treated Speaker’s certificate as final (though debated in recent cases).
Concept: Money Bill: only LS can introduce; RS can only recommend (14 days). Art 109 procedure.
Source: Money bill (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.58
Collegium system of appointment of Supreme Court Judges derives sanction from
- (1)The Constitution
- (2)Consent of Government
- (3)Decisions of Supreme Court
- (4)President of India
సుప్రీంకోర్టు న్యాయమూర్తుల నియామకాల కొలీజియం వ్యవస్థకు అధికారం ఎక్కడి నుండి వస్తుంది?
- (1)రాజ్యాంగం
- (2)ప్రభుత్వ అంగీకారం
- (3)సుప్రీంకోర్టు నిర్ణయాలు
- (4)రాష్ట్రపతి
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (3) Decisions of Supreme Court
Why (3) is correct: The collegium is not in the Constitution. It evolved from Supreme Court judgments: First Judges Case (1981), Second Judges Case (1993), Third Judges Case (1998).
Why the others are wrong:
- (1) Constitution (Art 124) only says appointment by President after consultation with judges.
- (2),(4) Not the source of the collegium system.
Concept: NJAC (99th Amendment) tried to replace collegium and was struck down in 2015.
Source: Collegium system (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.59
If a bill is introduced in the Council of the State and sent to Legislative Assembly for approval but if the Legislative Assembly rejects the bill, what is the next course of action?
- (1)Joint sitting of both the Houses
- (2)Council may send the bill back to the Assembly for reconsideration
- (3)Bill may be sent to the Governor for examination
- (4)The fate of the bill ends
రాష్ట్ర విధాన పరిషత్తులో ప్రవేశపెట్టి విధానసభకు పంపిన బిల్లును విధానసభ తిరస్కరిస్తే తర్వాతి చర్య?
- (1)రెండు సభల ఉమ్మడి సమావేశం
- (2)పరిషత్తు బిల్లును సభకు పునఃపరిశీలనకు పంపవచ్చు
- (3)బిల్లును గవర్నర్‌ పరిశీలనకు పంపవచ్చు
- (4)బిల్లు అక్కడితో ముగుస్తుంది
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (4) The fate of the bill ends
Why (4) is correct: At the State level there is no joint sitting. If the Legislative Assembly rejects a Bill that originated in the Legislative Council, the Bill ends (Art 197).
Why the others are wrong:
- (1) Joint sitting (Art 108) exists only for Parliament, not State legislatures.
- (2),(3) Not the prescribed next step after Assembly rejection of a Council Bill.
Concept: Art 197: Council can delay ordinary Bills but Assembly prevails. Money Bills cannot originate in the Council.
Source: State legislature (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.60
The total number of ministers including the Chief Minister in a State shall not be less than
- (1)12
- (2)10
- (3)15
- (4)7
ఒక రాష్ట్రములో ముఖ్యమంత్రితో కలిసి మంత్రుల సంఖ్య దీని కన్నా తక్కువ ఉండరాదు?
- (1)12
- (2)10
- (3)15
- (4)7
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (1) 12
Why (1) is correct: Article 164(1A) (91st Amendment, 2003): Council of Ministers including CM shall not exceed 15% of the Assembly strength, and shall not be less than 12.
Why the others are wrong:
- (2),(3),(4) Wrong floor numbers.
Concept: Same 15% cap for the Union under Art 75(1A). Smaller States / Assemblies still need minimum 12.
Source: 91st Amendment (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.61
The remuneration of an Advocate General would be
- (1)Equal to that of a High Court Judge
- (2)As determined by the Governor
- (3)Equal to that of the Chief Secretary of the State
- (4)Equal to that of the Cabinet Minister of the State
అడ్వకేట్‌ జనరల్‌ యొక్క వేతనము
- (1)హైకోర్టు న్యాయమూర్తి వేతనముతో సమానము
- (2)గవర్నర్‌ నిర్ణయిస్తారు
- (3)రాష్ట్ర ప్రధాన కార్యదర్శి వేతనముతో సమానము
- (4)రాష్ట్ర క్యాబినెట్‌ మంత్రి వేతనముతో సమానము
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (2) As determined by the Governor
Why (2) is correct: Article 165: Advocate General holds office during the pleasure of the Governor and receives remuneration as the Governor may determine.
Why the others are wrong:
- (1),(3),(4) Not fixed to those scales by the Constitution.
Concept: Advocate General = highest law officer of the State (counterpart of Attorney General under Art 76).
Source: Advocate General (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.62
As per Article 243 of the Constitution, the following would be the members of “Gram Sabha”
- (1)All adults with age of 18 years and above in the Panchayat area
- (2)All voters as per electoral rolls relating to the Panchayat area
- (3)All citizens residing in the Panchayat
- (4)All persons allowed by the Gram Panchayat
రాజ్యాంగములోని ఆర్టికల్‌ 243 ప్రకారం, “గ్రామసభ” సభ్యులు ఎవరు?
- (1)పంచాయతీ ప్రాంతంలో 18 ఏళ్లు పైబడిన అందరు వయోజనులు
- (2)పంచాయతీ ప్రాంతానికి సంబంధించిన ఎన్నికల జాబితాలోని అందరు ఓటర్లు
- (3)పంచాయతీలో నివసించే అందరు పౌరులు
- (4)గ్రామ పంచాయతీ అనుమతించిన వారందరూ
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (2) All voters as per electoral rolls relating to the Panchayat area
Why (2) is correct: Article 243(b): “Gram Sabha” means a body consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village within the Panchayat area.
Why the others are wrong:
- (1),(3) Broader than the constitutional definition (must be on the electoral roll).
- (4) Membership is not by Panchayat permission.
Concept: Part IX (73rd Amendment). Art 243A: Gram Sabha may exercise powers given by the State Legislature.
Source: Gram sabha (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.63
As per the recommendations of the 14th Finance Commission, the proportion of basic grant and performance grant out of the total grant to a duly constituted Panchayat would be in the ratio of
- (1)70 : 30
- (2)80 : 20
- (3)90 : 10
- (4)75 : 25
14వ ఫైనాన్స్‌ కమిషన్‌ సిఫార్సుల ప్రకారం, సరిగ్గా ఏర్పాటైన పంచాయతీకి మొత్తం గ్రాంట్‌లో ప్రాథమిక గ్రాంట్‌ మరియు పనితీరు గ్రాంట్‌ నిష్పత్తి
- (1)70 : 30
- (2)80 : 20
- (3)90 : 10
- (4)75 : 25
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (3) 90 : 10
Why (3) is correct: 14th Finance Commission: for gram panchayats, 90% basic grant and 10% performance grant. For municipalities the split was 80:20.
Why the others are wrong:
- (2) 80:20 is the municipal ratio, not panchayat.
- (1),(4) Wrong ratios.
Concept: 14th FC chaired by Y.V. Reddy; raised States’ share in central taxes to 42%.
Source: 14th FC Report
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.64
The percentage of distribution of revenue from taxes between the Centre and the States is recommended by the
- (1)Finance Commission
- (2)NITI Aayog
- (3)Inter-State Council
- (4)National Development Council
కేంద్రం మరియు రాష్ట్రాల మధ్య పన్ను రాబడి పంపిణీ శాతాన్ని సిఫారసు చేసేది
- (1)ఫైనాన్స్‌ కమిషన్‌
- (2)నీతి ఆయోగ్‌
- (3)అంతర్రాష్ట్ర మండలి
- (4)జాతీయ అభివృద్ధి మండలి
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (1) Finance Commission
Why (1) is correct: Article 280: the Finance Commission recommends the distribution of net tax proceeds between the Union and the States, and among the States.
Why the others are wrong:
- (2) NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission; it does not do the constitutional tax devolution.
- (3) Inter-State Council: Centre-State coordination (Art 263).
- (4) NDC advised on plan matters; now largely defunct.
Concept: Finance Commission every 5 years. Vertical + horizontal devolution; grants-in-aid under Art 275.
Source: Finance Commission (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.65
The maximum limit placed by the Constitution on levy per annum of Profession Tax is
- (1)Rs. 5,000
- (2)Rs. 2,500
- (3)Rs. 1,250
- (4)Rs. 2,000
వృత్తి పన్ను (Profession Tax)పై రాజ్యాంగం నిర్ణయించిన గరిష్ఠ వార్షిక పరిమితి
- (1)రూ. 5,000
- (2)రూ. 2,500
- (3)రూ. 1,250
- (4)రూ. 2,000
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (2) Rs. 2,500
Why (2) is correct: Article 276(2): total profession tax payable by a person to the State or local bodies shall not exceed ₹2,500 per annum (raised from ₹250 by the 60th Amendment, 1988).
Why the others are wrong:
- (1),(3),(4) Wrong ceilings.
Concept: Profession tax is a State subject; Art 276 allows States/local authorities to levy it despite it being a tax on income.
Source: Professional tax (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.66
Match the following Articles with the corresponding States: A. Article 371A B. Article 371B C. Article 371C D. Article 371F E. Article 371G | P. Assam Q. Nagaland R. Manipur S. Mizoram T. Sikkim
- (1)AP, BQ, CR, DS, ET
- (2)AP, BT, CQ, DS, ER
- (3)AQ, BP, CR, DT, ES
- (4)AR, BQ, CP, DT, ES
క్రింది ఆర్టికల్స్‌ను సంబంధిత రాష్ట్రాలతో జతపరచండి: A. 371A B. 371B C. 371C D. 371F E. 371G | P. అస్సాం Q. నాగాలాండ్‌ R. మణిపూర్‌ S. మిజోరాం T. సిక్కిం
- (1)AP, BQ, CR, DS, ET
- (2)AP, BT, CQ, DS, ER
- (3)AQ, BP, CR, DT, ES
- (4)AR, BQ, CP, DT, ES
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (3) AQ, BP, CR, DT, ES
Why (3) is correct: 371A → Nagaland (Q); 371B → Assam (P); 371C → Manipur (R); 371F → Sikkim (T); 371G → Mizoram (S). Code: AQ, BP, CR, DT, ES.
Why the others are wrong:
- (1),(2),(4) Misplace at least two pairs.
Concept: Also: 371D/E Andhra Pradesh; 371H Arunachal Pradesh; 371I Goa; 371J Karnataka.
Source: Article 371 (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.67
As per the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution, how many members shall be there in Tribes Advisory Council to be constituted by a State?
- (1)Up to 10
- (2)Up to 20
- (3)Up to 25
- (4)Up to 50
రాజ్యాంగంలోని ఐదవ షెడ్యూల్‌ ప్రకారం, రాష్ట్రం ఏర్పాటు చేసే గిరిజన సలహా మండలిలో ఎంతమంది సభ్యులు ఉండాలి?
- (1)గరిష్ఠంగా 10
- (2)గరిష్ఠంగా 20
- (3)గరిష్ఠంగా 25
- (4)గరిష్ఠంగా 50
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (2) Up to 20
Why (2) is correct: Fifth Schedule: Tribes Advisory Council shall consist of not more than 20 members, of whom about three-fourths shall be representatives of Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assembly.
Why the others are wrong:
- (1),(3),(4) Wrong ceilings.
Concept: Fifth Schedule: Scheduled Areas administration. Sixth Schedule: autonomous districts in tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram.
Source: Fifth Schedule (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.68
The regulations with regard to peace and good government in a Scheduled Area would be issued by
- (1)The President
- (2)The Parliament
- (3)The State Assembly
- (4)The Governor
షెడ్యూల్డ్‌ ప్రాంతంలో శాంతి మరియు మంచి పాలన కోసం నిబంధనలు జారీ చేసేది
- (1)రాష్ట్రపతి
- (2)పార్లమెంట్‌
- (3)రాష్ట్ర అసెంబ్లీ
- (4)గవర్నర్‌
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (4) The Governor
Why (4) is correct: Fifth Schedule, Para 5: the Governor may make regulations for the peace and good government of a Scheduled Area (after consulting the Tribes Advisory Council where it exists).
Why the others are wrong:
- (1) President declares/alters Scheduled Areas (Para 6), but regulations are by the Governor.
- (2),(3) Not the authority under Para 5.
Concept: Governor can repeal/amend Acts of Parliament or State Legislature for application to Scheduled Areas.
Source: Fifth Schedule (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.69
Who can alter the boundary of a Scheduled Area?
- (1)The President
- (2)The Parliament
- (3)The Governor
- (4)The State Assembly
షెడ్యూల్డ్‌ ప్రాంత సరిహద్దును ఎవరు మార్చగలరు?
- (1)రాష్ట్రపతి
- (2)పార్లమెంట్‌
- (3)గవర్నర్‌
- (4)రాష్ట్ర అసెంబ్లీ
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (1) The President
Why (1) is correct: Fifth Schedule, Para 6: the President may by order declare, increase, decrease, alter boundaries of, or rescind a Scheduled Area (after consulting the Governor).
Why the others are wrong:
- (2),(3),(4) Not the authority to alter Scheduled Area boundaries.
Concept: Scheduled Tribes: Art 342 (President notifies, after consultation with Governor for States).
Source: Fifth Schedule (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.70
An autonomous region is
- (1)A federation of autonomous districts
- (2)An autonomous unit within an autonomous district
- (3)A block of 3 autonomous districts
- (4)An autonomous district
ఒక స్వయంప్రతిపత్తి కల ప్రాంతము అనగా
- (1)స్వయంప్రతిపత్తి గల జిల్లాల సమాఖ్య
- (2)ఒక స్వయంప్రతిపత్తి గల జిల్లాలోని స్వయంప్రతిపత్తి ఉన్న భాగము
- (3)3 స్వయంప్రతిపత్తి కలిగిన జిల్లాల సమితి
- (4)ఒక స్వయంప్రతిపత్తి కలిగిన జిల్లా
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (2) An autonomous unit within an autonomous district
Why (2) is correct: Sixth Schedule: if there are different Scheduled Tribes in an autonomous district, the Governor may divide the area into autonomous regions — units within the autonomous district.
Why the others are wrong:
- (1),(3),(4) Wrong definitions.
Concept: Sixth Schedule applies to tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Autonomous District Councils (ADCs).
Source: Sixth Schedule (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.71
Even during Emergency, the following rights cannot be suspended
- (1)Right under Article 21
- (2)Right under Article 19
- (3)Right under Article 14
- (4)Right under Article 22
అత్యవసర పరిస్థితి సమయంలో కూడా ఈ క్రింది హక్కు తాత్కాలికముగా రద్దు చేయబడదు?
- (1)ఆర్టికల్‌ 21 క్రింద హక్కు
- (2)ఆర్టికల్‌ 19 క్రింద హక్కు
- (3)ఆర్టికల్‌ 14 క్రింద హక్కు
- (4)ఆర్టికల్‌ 22 క్రింద హక్కు
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (1) Right under Article 21
Why (1) is correct: After the 44th Amendment (1978), Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency (Art 359). Among the options, Art 21 is the one that cannot be suspended.
Why the others are wrong:
- (2) Art 19 is automatically suspended under Art 358 during an Art 352 emergency (war/external aggression).
- (3),(4) Art 14 and 22 can be suspended by Presidential order under Art 359 (except Art 20/21).
Concept: Art 352 National Emergency; Art 356 President’s Rule; Art 360 Financial Emergency.
Source: Emergency provisions (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.72
What is the amount of grant-in-aid recommended by the 14th Finance Commission to the Panchayats during 2015–2020?
- (1)Rs. 250,292.20 Cr
- (2)Rs. 300,292.20 Cr
- (3)Rs. 200,292.20 Cr
- (4)Rs. 275,292.20 Cr
2015–2020 కాలానికి పంచాయతీలకు 14వ ఫైనాన్స్‌ కమిషన్‌ సిఫారసు చేసిన గ్రాంట్‌-ఇన్‌-ఎయిడ్‌ మొత్తం?
- (1)రూ. 250,292.20 కోట్లు
- (2)రూ. 300,292.20 కోట్లు
- (3)రూ. 200,292.20 కోట్లు
- (4)రూ. 275,292.20 కోట్లు
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (3) Rs. 200,292.20 Cr
Why (3) is correct: 14th FC recommended grants of ₹2,00,292.20 crore to Panchayats for 2015–20 (and ₹87,143.80 crore to municipalities; total local bodies ≈ ₹2.87 lakh crore). [Flag: confirm figure against key if available.]
Why the others are wrong:
- (1),(2),(4) Wrong amounts.
Concept: Grants under Art 280/275 recommendations; 90:10 basic:performance for Gram Panchayats.
Source: 14th FC Report
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.73
Cultivation of opium is an item in the
- (1)Union List
- (2)State List
- (3)Concurrent List
- (4)Residuary item
అఫీం సాగు ఏ జాబితాలోని అంశం?
- (1)కేంద్ర జాబితా
- (2)రాష్ట్ర జాబితా
- (3)ఉమ్మడి జాబితా
- (4)అవశేష అంశం
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (1) Union List
Why (1) is correct: Cultivation, manufacture and sale of opium are in the Union List (Seventh Schedule).
Why the others are wrong:
- (2),(3),(4) Wrong list.
Concept: NDPS Act, 1985 regulates narcotic drugs. Legal opium cultivation in select tracts of MP, Rajasthan, UP under Central licence.
Source: Seventh Schedule (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.74
The power of Parliament to amend the Constitution is limited by the
- (1)Supreme Court
- (2)Civil Society
- (3)States
- (4)Constitution
రాజ్యాంగాన్ని సవరించే పార్లమెంట్‌ అధికారం దేనిచే పరిమితం?
- (1)సుప్రీంకోర్టు
- (2)సివిల్‌ సొసైటీ
- (3)రాష్ట్రాలు
- (4)రాజ్యాంగం
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (1) Supreme Court
Why (1) is correct: Kesavananda Bharati (1973): Parliament’s amending power under Art 368 is limited by the basic structure doctrine, enforced by the Supreme Court through judicial review. [Flag: some keys may mark (4) Constitution.]
Why the others are wrong:
- (2) Civil society has no legal veto.
- (3) States ratify only certain amendments (Art 368(2) proviso); they do not generally limit amending power.
- (4) The Constitution grants Art 368 power; the operative limit in doctrine is SC’s basic structure review.
Concept: Basic structure examples: supremacy of Constitution, judicial review, federalism, secularism, free & fair elections.
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.75
Which Article of the Constitution directs to provide instruction in mother tongue at the primary education stage to the children of linguistic minority groups?
- (1)Article 350A
- (2)Article 300A
- (3)Article 351A
- (4)Article 301A
భాషాపరంగా అల్పసంఖ్యాక వర్గాల పిల్లలకు ప్రాథమిక స్థాయిలో మాతృభాషలో విద్యను అందించాలని రాజ్యాంగంలోని ఏ ఆర్టికల్‌ ఆదేశిస్తుంది?
- (1)ఆర్టికల్‌ 350A
- (2)ఆర్టికల్‌ 300A
- (3)ఆర్టికల్‌ 351A
- (4)ఆర్టికల్‌ 301A
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (1) Article 350A
Why (1) is correct: Article 350A (Seventh Amendment / States Reorganisation context): State shall endeavour to provide mother-tongue instruction at the primary stage for linguistic minority children.
Why the others are wrong:
- (2) Art 300A = right to property.
- (3) Art 351 = Union’s duty to promote Hindi (no 351A in this sense).
- (4) Art 301 = freedom of trade; no 301A for education.
Concept: Art 350: redress of grievances in any language used in the Union/State. Art 350B: Special Officer for linguistic minorities.
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.76
The power of Judicial Review is exercised by the Supreme Court through which Article of the Constitution?
- (1)Article 131
- (2)Article 132
- (3)Article 32
- (4)Article 134
న్యాయ సమీక్షను అత్యున్నత న్యాయస్థానము రాజ్యాంగములోని ఏ ఆర్టికల్‌ ద్వారా చేయగలుగుతుంది?
- (1)ఆర్టికల్‌ 131
- (2)ఆర్టికల్‌ 132
- (3)ఆర్టికల్‌ 32
- (4)ఆర్టికల్‌ 134
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (3) Article 32
Why (3) is correct: Article 32 (writ jurisdiction) is the principal provision through which the Supreme Court enforces Fundamental Rights and exercises judicial review. [Flag: judicial review also arises under Arts 131–136, 142 etc.; this paper’s key maps to Art 32.]
Why the others are wrong:
- (1) Art 131 = original jurisdiction (Centre–State disputes).
- (2) Art 132 = appellate jurisdiction on constitutional questions.
- (4) Art 134 = criminal appellate jurisdiction.
Concept: High Courts: Art 226. Basic structure includes judicial review (Minerva Mills, L. Chandra Kumar).
Source: Judicial review (Wikipedia)
APPSC Group 2 Screening 2017 (26 Feb 2017), Q.77
As per Article 164 of the Constitution, a Minister for Tribal Welfare is compulsory for which State?
- (1)Madhya Pradesh
- (2)Maharashtra
- (3)Rajasthan
- (4)Himachal Pradesh
రాజ్యాంగములోని ఆర్టికల్‌ 164 ప్రకారము, ఈ క్రింది రాష్ట్రములో గిరిజన సంక్షేమ శాఖా మంత్రి తప్పనిసరిగా ఉండాలి?
- (1)మధ్యప్రదేశ్‌
- (2)మహారాష్ట్ర
- (3)రాజస్థాన్‌
- (4)హిమాచల్‌ ప్రదేశ్‌
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (1) Madhya Pradesh
Why (1) is correct: Article 164: in the States of Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha, there shall be a Minister in charge of tribal welfare. Among the given options, only Madhya Pradesh qualifies.
Why the others are wrong:
- (2),(3),(4) Not the States named in Art 164 for a compulsory Tribal Welfare Minister.
Concept: Originally Bihar, MP and Orissa; after reorganisation, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, MP and Odisha.
Source: Article 164 (Wikipedia)