Andhra Pradesh has approved the second phase of Thalliki Vandanam for 3,29,201 more students. That is 58,601 more than first estimated and costs an extra ₹87.9 crore. This year’s total now stands at 68,05,791 beneficiaries and ₹10,208.69 crore, up from 67,47,190 and ₹10,120.78 crore. Phase 1 reached 64,76,590 beneficiaries. It left out students due to join Class 1 or first-year Intermediate and those with incomplete records.
School Education Department orders issued 10 October, with payments planned before Dasara.
Interconnected concept: Article 21A and the Right to Education Act, and direct benefit transfer.
The Nobel Prizes for 2026 have been announced (the Economics prize is yet to be announced). The science prizes went to optogenetics, high-energy cosmic neutrinos and chirality in chemistry. The Peace Prize went to Navi Pillay, a South African jurist of Indian Tamil origin.
Key points: winners at a glance
Prize (date announced)
Winner(s)
For
Physiology or Medicine
Karl Deisseroth (USA), Peter Hegemann and Georg Nagel (Germany)
Light-gated ion channels and optogenetics
Physics
Francis Halzen (University of Wisconsin–Madison, USA)
IceCube Neutrino Observatory and discovery of high-energy neutrinos of astrophysical origin
Chemistry
Henri B. Kagan (France), Kenso Soai (Japan)
Non-linear effects and autocatalysis in asymmetric organic synthesis
Literature
Anne Carson (Canada)
Inventive writing in dialogue with the classical tradition
Peace
Navanethem “Navi” Pillay (South Africa)
Promoting peace and international law
Prize amount: 12 million Swedish kronor per prize.
The science, simply explained
Medicine – Optogenetics
Hegemann and Nagel found channelrhodopsin, a protein in the single-celled alga Chlamydomonas that helps it swim towards light.
When blue light falls on it, a channel opens and charged ions flow into the cell, creating an electrical impulse.
Deisseroth put the gene for this protein into rat nerve cells (2005) and then into the brains of living mice (2007). Shining light could now switch specific neurons on.
Use: mapping brain circuits behind memory, emotions and behaviour; research on neurological and psychiatric disorders; trials to restore sight.
Physics – Neutrinos and IceCube
Neutrinos are tiny, nearly massless particles with no charge. They pass through the Earth and our bodies almost without interacting.
Because they are not bent by magnetic fields or absorbed on the way, they carry direct information about violent cosmic sources.
Halzen proposed in 1988 that clear Antarctic ice at the South Pole could detect them. When a neutrino hits an atomic nucleus, it gives off a flash of light picked up by sensors.
IceCube, a cubic kilometre of ice fitted with light sensors, was completed in 2011. It found neutrinos coming from far outside the solar system, starting neutrino astronomy.
Chemistry – Chirality
Many molecules, such as amino acids, exist as two mirror-image forms (like left and right hands). This is called chirality.
Life is homochiral: proteins use only one of the two forms.
Lab reactions usually make both forms equally. Kagan (1986) found a way to get a large excess of one form (a non-linear effect). Soai designed a self-amplifying (autocatalytic) reaction and, in 2003, produced only one mirror image.
Use: drug manufacture, because often only one mirror form of a drug works as intended.
India connect
Navi Pillay was born in Durban to a family of Indian Tamil origin. She defended Nelson Mandela and other anti-apartheid activists, served as a judge of the International Criminal Tribunal for Rwanda and the International Criminal Court, was UN High Commissioner for Human Rights, and is now a judge at the International Court of Justice in the Myanmar genocide case.
India-based Neutrino Observatory (INO): India’s planned underground lab for atmospheric neutrino studies, proposed in the Bodi West Hills of Theni district, Tamil Nadu.
Significance
Basic science pays off: a question about how algae move towards light led to a revolution in brain science.
New astronomy: neutrinos join light and gravitational waves as “messengers” from space.
Medicines: control over chirality makes drugs safer and more effective.
International law: the Peace Prize highlights the role of courts like the ICC and ICJ when these institutions are under pressure.
Prelims facts
Optogenetics uses the light-sensitive algal protein channelrhodopsin, activated by blue light.
IceCube Neutrino Observatory is at the South Pole; it covers about 1 cubic km of ice and was completed in 2011.
Neutrinos: no electric charge, almost no mass, rarely interact with matter.
Chirality: mirror-image forms of a molecule; life is homochiral.
Nobel Peace Prize 2026: Navi Pillay (South Africa, Indian Tamil origin), for promoting peace and international law.
Nobel Literature 2026: Anne Carson (Canada).
Practice MCQs
Q1. “Optogenetics”, recognised by the 2026 Nobel Prize in Medicine, involves:
Editing genes using CRISPR-Cas9 to cure eye diseases
Controlling the activity of specific nerve cells using light-sensitive proteins
Using optical fibres to image tumours
Growing artificial retinas from stem cells
Answer: (b). Light-gated proteins such as channelrhodopsin are placed in neurons so that light can switch them on.
Q2. Consider the following statements about neutrinos:
They carry no electric charge.
They are easily stopped by thin layers of matter, so detectors are built in space.
The IceCube observatory detects them using light flashes in Antarctic ice.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c). Neutrinos pass through matter very easily, which is why huge detectors like IceCube are built in ice or deep underground.
Q3. The 2026 Nobel Peace Prize laureate Navi Pillay has NOT served as:
Judge of the International Criminal Tribunal for Rwanda
UN High Commissioner for Human Rights
UN Secretary-General
Judge of the International Court of Justice
Answer: (c). She has held the other three roles but has never been UN Secretary-General.
Mains practice question
“Curiosity-driven basic research often produces the biggest practical breakthroughs.” Illustrate with examples from the 2026 Nobel Prizes in science and suggest how India can strengthen basic research. (150 words, 10 marks)
The Supreme Court dismissed Andhra Pradesh’s appeal and upheld the High Court order that struck down 34% BC reservation in local bodies for breaching the 50% ceiling. Soon after, the AP Cabinet accepted the Rajeev Ranjan Mishra Dedicated Commission report, fixing BC reservation local body-wise, with an average of 28.18%.
Key points
Court rulings
AP High Court: struck down the orders that gave 34% to BCs in Panchayat Raj Institutions and 33.33% in urban local bodies. It directed the government and the State Election Commission to start the election process within six weeks.
Supreme Court: ruled that the High Court order was reasonable. The reservation went beyond the 50% limit set in Indra Sawhney (1992), and there was no empirical data to justify crossing it.
In a separate case, the Supreme Court ruled that the local body polls cannot be delayed because the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls is under way.
AP Cabinet decision
Accepted the report of the Dedicated Commission headed by Rajeev Ranjan Mishra.
Purpose of the commission: to collect empirical data on the backwardness of BCs in each local body, as required by the Supreme Court’s triple test, so that BC reservation can be fixed local body-wise without crossing the 50% limit.
Total SC + ST + BC reservation will not exceed 50% in any local body.
Order of calculation: ST quota first, then SC (both on Census 2011), then the BC share within the remaining room.
Data used for BCs: Unified Family Survey, Ward and Village Secretariats data, NFHS, records of the Panchayat Raj and Municipal departments, and the Census.
BC quota by post (state government figures):
Post
BC quota
Gram panchayat ward members
26.73%
Sarpanches
27.95%
MPTC members
25.55%
Mandal Parishad presidents
24.60%
ZPTC members
24.60%
Zilla Parishad chairpersons
23.08%
Urban ward members
32.78%
Municipal chairpersons
33.02%
Mayors
35.29%
Overall average
28.18%
The government expects BCs to get more than 38,000 posts. The ruling coalition promised more than 34% of its party tickets to BCs where the legal quota is lower.
Background / static link
Article 243D: reservation in Panchayats for SCs and STs (by population) and women (at least one-third). Article 243D(6) lets states reserve seats for backward classes.
Article 243T: the same for Municipalities; 243T(6) covers backward classes.
K. Krishna Murthy v. Union of India (2010): the Supreme Court ruled that political backwardness differs from social and educational backwardness. Local body reservation for BCs is allowed but must be justified and must generally stay within 50%.
Vikas Kishanrao Gawali v. State of Maharashtra (2021) – the triple test:
Set up a dedicated commission to carry out a contemporaneous, rigorous empirical inquiry into backwardness for local bodies.
Specify the reservation local body-wise based on the commission’s findings.
Total SC + ST + OBC reservation must not exceed 50%.
Suresh Mahajan v. State of Madhya Pradesh (2022): elections cannot be held up indefinitely; without a completed triple test, the seats go to the general category.
AP history (as stated by the state government): 20% BC quota in local bodies in 1987, raised to 34% in 1995.
Significance
Rule of law: confirms that the 50% ceiling and triple test bind every state, whatever the political promise.
Data-based reservation: reservation is now fixed for each local body based on its own population data, not one flat figure for the state.
Timely elections: the HC’s six-week direction and the SC’s refusal to allow delays protect the constitutional duty to hold local polls on time (Article 243E and 243U set a five-year term).
Model for other states: shows a legally safe path for OBC quotas in local bodies.
Concerns / challenges
Lower share than promised: the average of 28.18% is below the 34% that BCs had earlier, which may cause dissatisfaction.
Old SC/ST data: SC and ST quotas still use Census 2011 because newer caste census data is not yet available.
Areas with high SC/ST share: in tribal areas, little or no room is left for BCs under the 50% cap.
Data quality: state survey data can be challenged in court, as happened with the 34% orders.
Telangana angle
Telangana faced the same issue. The Telangana High Court stayed the state’s order that raised BC reservation in local bodies to 42% (taking the total to 67%). The Supreme Court then dismissed the state’s plea against that stay. Both states show that the triple test and the 50% cap cannot be bypassed by executive orders.
Head of AP’s Dedicated BC Commission: Rajeev Ranjan Mishra.
Average BC quota approved by the AP Cabinet: 28.18%. Highest is for Mayors (35.29%).
BC reservation in Panchayats: Article 243D(6). In Municipalities: Article 243T(6).
Triple test case: Vikas Kishanrao Gawali (2021).
50% ceiling: Indra Sawhney (1992).
Practice MCQs
Q1. Which of the following is NOT part of the Supreme Court’s “triple test” for OBC reservation in local bodies?
Setting up a dedicated commission for an empirical inquiry
Specifying the proportion of reservation local body-wise
Total SC, ST and OBC reservation not exceeding 50%
Excluding the creamy layer through an income limit of ₹8 lakh
Answer: (d). The triple test has only the first three conditions. The creamy layer rule applies to jobs and education, not this test.
Q2. Which constitutional provisions enable states to reserve seats for backward classes in Panchayats and Municipalities respectively?
Article 243D(6) and Article 243T(6)
Article 15(4) and Article 16(4)
Article 243K and Article 243ZA
Article 340 and Article 342A
Answer: (a). 243D(6) covers Panchayats and 243T(6) covers Municipalities. 243K and 243ZA deal with State Election Commissions.
Q3. Consider the following statements regarding the recent AP Cabinet decision on BC reservation in local bodies:
BC reservation was fixed at a uniform 34% across all local bodies.
SC and ST quotas were calculated first, based on Census 2011.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b). BC quotas vary by post (average 28.18%); ST and SC quotas were fixed first using Census 2011.
Mains practice question
“The triple test balances social justice with constitutional limits.” Discuss with reference to the recent BC reservation issues in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana local bodies. (250 words, 15 marks)
The RBI has announced a repo rate hike of 25 basis points to 5.50% and changed its policy stance from “neutral” to “calibrated tightening”. It is the first increase since February 2023. This note explains the policy rates, the meaning of each stance, the Monetary Policy Committee and the prelims traps around them.
Why in News?
The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), chaired by RBI Governor Sanjay Malhotra, voted unanimously to raise the policy repo rate from 5.25% to 5.50%.
Reasons cited:
renewed inflation pressures
high crude oil prices linked to the West Asia conflict
a weaker rupee
The RBI raised its FY27 real GDP growth projection to 7.1% and its CPI inflation projection to 5.2%.
Key Facts for Prelims: Repo Rate Hike
Policy Rate
New Level
Position in Corridor
Policy Repo Rate
5.50% (up from 5.25%)
Middle (policy rate)
Standing Deposit Facility (SDF)
5.25%
Floor (repo minus 25 bps)
Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)
5.75%
Ceiling (repo plus 25 bps)
Bank Rate
5.75%
Aligned with MSF
Stance: Changed from neutral to calibrated tightening
Vote: Unanimous (6–0)
Significance: The repo rate hike ends a long pause that followed the rate cuts of 2025
Concepts Behind the Repo Rate Hike
1. Policy Repo Rate: The fixed rate at which the RBI provides short-term liquidity to banks against government securities (G-secs) as collateral.
Meaning of “repo”: Repurchase agreement. A bank sells G-secs to the RBI and agrees to buy them back later at a higher price. The difference works as the interest, which is the repo rate.
Effect of a repo rate hike: Borrowing becomes costlier for banks. Loan rates rise and demand cools, which helps control inflation.
2. Standing Deposit Facility (SDF): Introduced in April 2022 to absorb surplus liquidity without giving collateral.
Under the old fixed-rate reverse repo, the RBI had to give G-secs to banks. SDF is uncollateralised.
SDF replaced the reverse repo as the floor of the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) corridor. An amendment to the RBI Act in 2018 enabled it.
3. Marginal Standing Facility (MSF): An emergency overnight window. Scheduled commercial banks can borrow from the RBI when inter-bank liquidity dries up, even by dipping into their SLR holdings up to a set limit. It is the ceiling of the corridor.
4. Bank Rate: The rate at which the RBI lends long-term funds without collateral (Section 49 of the RBI Act). Today it is aligned with the MSF and is mainly used to set penal rates.
RBI Policy Stances Explained
Stance
What It Signals
Accommodative
Rate cut or pause; no hike. Supports growth.
Neutral
Rates can move either way, depending on data
Calibrated tightening
Rate cuts are off the table; the next move is a small hike or a pause
Withdrawal of accommodation
Gradually draining excess liquidity and removing earlier support
Note: “Calibrated tightening” was first used by the RBI in October 2018, when it moved from neutral without changing the repo rate.
Static Link: Monetary Policy Committee and Inflation Targeting
Legal basis: Section 45ZB of the RBI Act, 1934, inserted through the 2016 amendment
Composition: Six members. Three are from the RBI: the Governor (Chairperson), the Deputy Governor in charge of monetary policy and one officer nominated by the Central Board. Three are external members appointed by the Central Government for four years.
Voting: Quorum of four, one vote each; the Governor has a casting vote in a tie
Meetings: At least four times a year
Inflation target: CPI inflation of 4% with a tolerance band of ±2%, set by the Centre in consultation with the RBI every five years (Section 45ZA)
Failure: If average inflation stays above 6% or below 2% for three consecutive quarters, the RBI must report to the Centre the reasons and remedial action
Transmission: Since October 2019, floating-rate retail and MSME loans are linked to an external benchmark such as the repo rate. So a repo rate hike reaches these borrowers faster.
Quick Revision Table: Repo Rate Hike
Parameter
Fact
New repo rate
5.50% (+25 bps)
SDF (floor)
5.25%
MSF and Bank Rate (ceiling)
5.75%
Stance
Neutral to calibrated tightening
MPC vote
Unanimous
FY27 GDP growth projection
7.1%
FY27 CPI inflation projection
5.2%
Inflation target
4% ± 2% (CPI)
Legal basis of MPC
Section 45ZB, RBI Act 1934
Last repo rate hike before this
February 2023
Trap / Confusing Points
Common Confusion
Correct Position
SDF and reverse repo work the same way
No. Under reverse repo the RBI gives G-secs as collateral. SDF needs no collateral.
Calibrated tightening means a hike at every meeting
No. It only rules out cuts. The RBI can hike or pause.
Bank Rate and repo rate are the same
No. Repo is short-term lending against G-secs. Bank Rate is long-term lending without collateral and is aligned with the MSF.
The Finance Ministry has a voting member on the MPC
No. Three members are from the RBI and three are external experts appointed by the Centre.
25 basis points = 2.5%
No. 1 basis point = 0.01%, so 25 bps = 0.25%.
The RBI’s inflation target is based on WPI
No. The target is based on CPI (Combined) inflation.
Practice MCQs on Repo Rate Hike
1. With the repo rate at 5.50%, the SDF and MSF rates are respectively: a. 5.25% and 5.75% b. 5.00% and 6.00% c. 3.35% and 5.75% d. 5.25% and 6.25% Ans: A Explanation: SDF is the floor at repo minus 25 bps. MSF is the ceiling at repo plus 25 bps. The corridor is 50 bps wide.
2. The Standing Deposit Facility differs from the fixed-rate reverse repo because it: a. Requires G-secs as collateral b. Absorbs liquidity without the RBI giving collateral c. Is a long-term lending window d. Is available only to NBFCs Ans: B Explanation: SDF, introduced in April 2022, is uncollateralised. It is now the floor of the LAF corridor.
3. A “calibrated tightening” stance implies that: a. Rate cuts are likely b. Rates can move in either direction c. There will be no rate cut; the next action is a hike or a pause d. Liquidity will be injected through OMOs Ans: C Explanation: Calibrated tightening takes rate cuts off the table and limits future action to small hikes or pauses.
4. The Monetary Policy Committee is constituted under: a. Banking Regulation Act, 1949 b. Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 c. FRBM Act, 2003 d. Article 292 of the Constitution Ans: B Explanation: Section 45ZB of the RBI Act, 1934, inserted by the 2016 amendment, provides for the six-member MPC.
5. Under the flexible inflation targeting framework, the RBI’s inflation target is: a. 2% ± 1% (WPI) b. 4% ± 2% (CPI) c. 5% ± 1% (CPI) d. 6% ± 2% (WPI) Ans: B Explanation: The target is CPI inflation of 4%, with a tolerance band of 2% to 6%.
Exam tip: Compare this repo rate hike with our note on the earlier 5.25% neutral-stance policy. Examiners often test how stance and rates have moved over time.
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To know more about the RBI’s repo rate hike, Click here.
The Ramanujan Prize 2026 has gone to Mahesh Kakde, a professor at the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru, for his work in algebraic number theory. He is the fifth Indian to win it. This note covers the prize, Kakde’s work, other mathematics awards and the traps examiners use.
Why in News?
Indian mathematician Mahesh Kakde received the Ramanujan Prize 2026 for Young Mathematicians from Developing Countries. The citation recognises his fundamental work in algebraic number theory, especially Iwasawa theory.
Key Facts for Prelims: Ramanujan Prize 2026
Winner: Mahesh Kakde, Professor of Mathematics, IISc Bengaluru
Field: Algebraic number theory, mainly noncommutative Iwasawa theory
Notable results: Work on the Brumer–Stark and Gross–Stark conjectures, which has implications for Hilbert’s 12th problem
Earlier honours: Infosys Prize in Mathematical Sciences (2022) and invited speaker at the International Congress of Mathematicians
Indian winners of this prize: Sujatha Ramdorai (2006), Amalendu Krishna (2015), Ritabrata Munshi (2018), Neena Gupta (2021) and Mahesh Kakde (2026)
What Is Algebraic Number Theory?
Number theory studies whole numbers and their properties, such as primes and divisibility. Algebraic number theory goes further. It looks for hidden structures that explain why numbers behave the way they do.
Iwasawa theory studies how these patterns change when number systems are extended step by step into larger, more complex systems. Kakde’s results helped explain such changes even where the systems do not behave in a simple, predictable way.
About the Ramanujan Prize
Full name: Ramanujan Prize for Young Mathematicians from Developing Countries
Awarded by: The International Centre for Theoretical Physics (ICTP), with the International Mathematical Union (IMU) and India’s Department of Science and Technology (DST), which funds it
Eligibility: Researchers from developing countries who are under 45 years of age
Started: First awarded in 2005
Purpose: To recognise outstanding research carried out in a developing country
Static Link: Srinivasa Ramanujan and Maths Institutions
Srinivasa Ramanujan was born on 22 December 1887 in Erode, Tamil Nadu. He worked on number theory, infinite series, partitions and mock theta functions.
He was elected a Fellow of the Royal Society (1918) and was a Fellow of Trinity College, Cambridge.
1729 is known as the Hardy–Ramanujan number. It is the smallest number that can be written as the sum of two cubes in two different ways.
National Mathematics Day is observed on 22 December, his birth anniversary. It was declared in 2011, and 2012 was observed as National Mathematical Year.
ICTP is in Trieste, Italy. It was founded in 1964 by Nobel laureate Abdus Salam and works under UNESCO and the IAEA.
IMU awards the Fields Medal and the Leelavati Prize (for public outreach in mathematics). The Leelavati Prize was instituted when the International Congress of Mathematicians was held in Hyderabad in 2010.
Major Mathematics Awards Compared
Award
Given By
Age / Eligibility
ICTP Ramanujan Prize
ICTP, IMU, DST
Under 45, from developing countries
SASTRA Ramanujan Prize
SASTRA University
32 years or below, any nationality
Fields Medal
IMU (every 4 years)
Under 40
Abel Prize
Norwegian Academy of Science and Letters
No age limit
Vigyan Yuva–Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award
Government of India (Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar)
Up to 45 years
Quick Revision Table: Ramanujan Prize 2026
Parameter
Fact
Prize
Ramanujan Prize for Young Mathematicians from Developing Countries
Ramanujan Prize 2026 winner
Mahesh Kakde (IISc Bengaluru)
Area of work
Algebraic number theory (Iwasawa theory)
Awarding bodies
ICTP and IMU, funded by DST
Age limit
Under 45
Kakde’s position among Indian winners
Fifth
First Indian winner
Sujatha Ramdorai
National Mathematics Day
22 December
Trap / Confusing Points on Ramanujan Prize 2026
Common Confusion
Correct Position
The ICTP Ramanujan Prize and the SASTRA Ramanujan Prize are the same
No. ICTP’s prize is for mathematicians under 45 from developing countries. SASTRA’s is for those aged 32 or below, of any nationality.
The Abel Prize is given by the IMU
No. The Norwegian Academy of Science and Letters gives the Abel Prize. The IMU gives the Fields Medal.
Kakde is the first Indian to win the Ramanujan Prize
No. He is the fifth. Sujatha Ramdorai was the first.
ICTP is an Indian institution
No. It is in Trieste, Italy. India’s DST only funds the prize.
National Mathematics Day is on 28 February
No. 28 February is National Science Day (Raman Effect). Mathematics Day is on 22 December.
Practice MCQs on Ramanujan Prize 2026
1. The Ramanujan Prize for Young Mathematicians from Developing Countries is awarded by: a. SASTRA University b. ICTP with the IMU, funded by DST c. Indian National Science Academy d. Royal Society, London Ans: B Explanation: ICTP awards it with the International Mathematical Union. India’s Department of Science and Technology funds it.
2. What is the age limit for the ICTP Ramanujan Prize? a. Under 32 b. Under 40 c. Under 45 d. No age limit Ans: C Explanation: It is for researchers under 45 from developing countries. The SASTRA prize limit is 32 and the Fields Medal limit is 40.
3. The Ramanujan Prize 2026 winner Mahesh Kakde works mainly in: a. Algebraic number theory b. Topology c. Fluid dynamics d. Combinatorics Ans: A Explanation: He was recognised for work in algebraic number theory, especially noncommutative Iwasawa theory.
4. Who was the first Indian to win the ICTP Ramanujan Prize? a. Neena Gupta b. Sujatha Ramdorai c. Ritabrata Munshi d. Amalendu Krishna Ans: B Explanation: Sujatha Ramdorai won it in 2006 for work including Iwasawa theory. Kakde is the fifth Indian winner.
5. National Mathematics Day in India is observed on: a. 28 February b. 22 December c. 11 May d. 14 March Ans: B Explanation: 22 December is Ramanujan’s birth anniversary. 28 February is National Science Day and 11 May is National Technology Day.
Exam tip: Award questions usually test the awarding body, the age limit and the “first Indian” fact. Revise the Ramanujan Prize 2026 together with the comparison table above.
To learn current affairs from exam point of view, Click here.
To know more about the Ramanujan Prize 2026 awarded to Mahesh Kakde, Click here.
The Fleet Support Ship ‘Surya’ (FSS-1), India’s first indigenously built ship of this class, has been launched by Hindustan Shipyard Limited (HSL). This note covers what a Fleet Support Ship does, the five-ship programme, HSL’s status, and the defence-shipbuilding traps that appear in prelims.
Why in News?
Defence Minister Rajnath Singh launched FSS-1 ‘Surya’, the first indigenous Fleet Support Ship for the Indian Navy, at Hindustan Shipyard Limited, Visakhapatnam.
At the same event he:
laid the keel of the fifth Fleet Support Ship (FSS-5)
inaugurated the upgraded Slipway-4, which can build ships of up to 45,000 DWT
inaugurated a 300-tonne Goliath crane made under Make in India
Key Facts for Prelims: Fleet Support Ship ‘Surya’
Type: An auxiliary (support) ship, not a frontline combat warship
Builder: Hindustan Shipyard Limited, a Defence PSU
Programme: Five Fleet Support Ships for the Indian Navy, under a contract signed in 2023 worth about ₹19,000 crore
Size: Displacement of over 40,000 tonnes
Cargo: Fuel, aviation turbine fuel, fresh water, ammunition and provisions
Onboard features: Maintenance workshops, a helicopter deck and self-defence systems
Status: Launched, not yet commissioned. Deliveries to the Navy are expected from 2027.
What Does a Fleet Support Ship Do?
A Fleet Support Ship is a floating logistics hub. It carries out Replenishment at Sea (RAS): it transfers fuel, water and stores to warships while both ships keep moving.
Endurance: Warships need not return to port to refuel, so they can stay deployed longer.
Reach: It extends the Navy’s operating range across the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
Blue-water capability: A carrier battle group cannot operate far from home without such tankers.
HADR: It can carry relief material during Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief missions.
Static Link: Indian Shipyards and Maritime Vision
Hindustan Shipyard Limited: Started in 1941 as Scindia Shipyard. It has been under the Ministry of Defence since 2010 and received Miniratna Category-I status in 2025.
Other Defence PSU shipyards: Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders (Mumbai), Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (Kolkata) and Goa Shipyard.
Cochin Shipyard, which built the aircraft carrier INS Vikrant, comes under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, not the Ministry of Defence.
Existing fleet tankers: The Navy already operates replenishment tankers such as INS Deepak and INS Shakti, which were built abroad.
MAHASAGAR (Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions) succeeded SAGAR as India’s maritime vision. It was announced in Mauritius in 2025. Support ships help India act as a “first responder” in the IOR.
Ship Launch vs Commissioning
Stage
What Happens
Steel cutting
Construction formally begins
Keel laying
The first structural block is placed on the slipway
Launch
The hull is floated into water; fitting-out of machinery and systems continues
Sea trials
The ship’s systems are tested at sea
Commissioning
Formal induction into the Navy; the ship gets the prefix “INS”
Quick Revision Table: Fleet Support Ship
Parameter
Fact
Ship
FSS-1 ‘Surya’
Category
Fleet Support Ship (auxiliary / replenishment ship)
Builder
Hindustan Shipyard Limited (Defence PSU)
Administrative ministry of HSL
Ministry of Defence
Programme size
Five Fleet Support Ships
Contract value
About ₹19,000 crore
Displacement
Over 40,000 tonnes
Core role
Replenishment at Sea: fuel, water, ammunition, stores
Strategic gain
Longer endurance and reach of the Navy in the IOR
HSL status
Miniratna Category-I
Trap / Confusing Points
Common Confusion
Correct Position
Surya has been commissioned into the Navy
No. It has only been launched. Commissioning comes after fitting-out and sea trials.
It should be called “INS Surya” now
The prefix “INS” is used only after commissioning. Until then it is FSS-1 ‘Surya’.
Surya is the Navy’s first-ever replenishment ship
No. It is the first indigenous Fleet Support Ship. The Navy already runs foreign-built tankers such as INS Deepak and INS Shakti.
A Fleet Support Ship is a combat warship
No. It is an auxiliary ship with only self-defence systems.
All public sector shipyards are under the Ministry of Defence
No. Cochin Shipyard is under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
Practice MCQs on Fleet Support Ship
1. The primary role of a Fleet Support Ship is: a. Anti-submarine warfare b. Replenishing warships at sea with fuel, water and stores c. Mine countermeasures d. Amphibious landing of troops Ans: B Explanation: A Fleet Support Ship is a floating logistics hub. It keeps warships supplied at sea and extends their endurance.
2. India’s first indigenous Fleet Support Ship ‘Surya’ was built by: a. Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders b. Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers c. Hindustan Shipyard Limited d. Cochin Shipyard Limited Ans: C Explanation: HSL, a Defence PSU, is the lead shipyard for the five-ship programme and launched FSS-1 ‘Surya’.
3. Hindustan Shipyard Limited functions under which ministry? a. Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways b. Ministry of Heavy Industries c. Ministry of Defence d. Ministry of Commerce and Industry Ans: C Explanation: HSL was transferred to the Ministry of Defence in 2010. Cochin Shipyard is under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
4. In naval shipbuilding, the “launch” of a ship refers to: a. Formal induction into the Navy b. Floating the hull into water, after which fitting-out continues c. The first firing of its weapons d. Completion of sea trials Ans: B Explanation: Launch comes after keel laying and before sea trials and commissioning. “INS” is prefixed only at commissioning.
5. India’s maritime vision MAHASAGAR, which succeeded SAGAR, was announced during the Prime Minister’s visit to: a. Sri Lanka b. Maldives c. Mauritius d. Seychelles Ans: C Explanation: MAHASAGAR stands for Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions. It was announced in Mauritius in 2025.
Exam tip: For defence news, always note the stage (launch, delivery or commissioning), the builder and its ministry. The Fleet Support Ship programme is a likely source of prelims statements.
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To know more about the launch of Fleet Support Ship ‘Surya’, Click here.
Paschim Banga may soon become the official name of West Bengal. The state government plans to bring the renaming proposal to the Assembly in its next session. This note covers the Article 3 procedure for renaming a state, earlier West Bengal proposals, and the traps examiners set on this topic.
Why in News?
West Bengal BJP president Samik Bhattacharya announced that the state government will soon table a Bill in the Legislative Assembly to rename West Bengal as Paschim Banga. He linked the new name to the state’s history and identity.
For prelims, the real issue is who has the power to rename a state. Under the Constitution, a state cannot change its own name. Only Parliament can do it, by law under Article 3.
Key Facts for Prelims: Paschim Banga Proposal
Proposed name: Paschim Banga (the Bengali form of “West Bengal”)
Who announced it: The state BJP president, on behalf of the state government
Earlier proposals: “Paschim Banga” (2011); three names, Bangla, Bengal and Bangal (2016); and a single name, “Bangla”, through a unanimous Assembly resolution (2018)
Outcome so far: The Centre approved none of the earlier proposals. One concern raised was the similarity of “Bangla” to Bangladesh.
Reason usually given: In the alphabetical list, “West Bengal” comes last among states, so its turn comes last at inter-state meetings
Paschim Banga and Article 3: How a State Is Renamed
Under Article 3, Parliament may by law:
form a new state by separating territory or uniting states
increase or diminish the area of a state
alter the boundaries of a state
alter the name of a state
Step-by-step procedure:
State resolution: The process usually starts with a resolution of the State Legislative Assembly, sent to the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
Consultation: MHA consults agencies such as the Intelligence Bureau, Railways, Department of Posts and Survey of India.
President’s recommendation: A Bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament only on the prior recommendation of the President.
Reference to the state: Before recommending it, the President refers the Bill to the State Legislature for its views within a specified period.
Views not binding: Parliament can go ahead even if the state disagrees or does not reply in time.
Passage: Both Houses pass the Bill by a simple majority and it becomes law with the President’s assent.
Static Link: Article 4 and the Schedules
Article 4 says laws made under Articles 2 and 3 may amend the First Schedule (names and territories of states) and the Fourth Schedule (Rajya Sabha seats).
Such laws are not deemed to be amendments under Article 368. So a simple majority is enough, not a special majority.
Babulal Parate case (1960): The Supreme Court held that if Parliament amends the Bill, it need not be referred to the state again.
For Union Territories, there is no requirement to refer the Bill to any legislature.
Renaming a city or village does not need a Parliament law. The state government does it by executive order after MHA’s no-objection.
Past Renaming of States and UTs
Old Name
New Name
Year
Madras State
Tamil Nadu
1969
Mysore
Karnataka
1973
Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindivi Islands
Lakshadweep
1973
Pondicherry
Puducherry
2006
Uttaranchal
Uttarakhand
2007
Orissa
Odisha
2011
Note: The Orissa-to-Odisha change also needed the 96th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011, because the language name “Oriya” in the Eighth Schedule was changed to “Odia”. Changing a language name in the Eighth Schedule needs an Article 368 amendment.
Quick Revision Table: Paschim Banga and Renaming of States
Parameter
Fact
Proposed new name
Paschim Banga
Power to rename a state
Parliament, by law (Article 3)
Bill introduced on
Prior recommendation of the President
Role of State Legislature
Gives views; not binding
Majority required
Simple majority
Amendment under Article 368?
No (Article 4(2))
Schedule amended
First Schedule (Fourth Schedule if Rajya Sabha seats change)
Earlier single name proposed by the Assembly
Bangla
Most recent state renamed
Orissa to Odisha
Trap / Confusing Points
Common Confusion
Correct Position
A State Assembly can rename the state by passing its own Bill
No. Only Parliament can, under Article 3. The Assembly can only recommend or give its views.
Renaming a state needs a special majority under Article 368
No. Article 4(2) says it is not an amendment under Article 368, so a simple majority is enough.
The state’s views bind the President and Parliament
No. The views are only advisory.
The Bill can be introduced without the President’s recommendation
No. Prior recommendation of the President is mandatory.
Renaming a city also needs an Act of Parliament
No. It is an executive decision of the state with MHA’s no-objection.
Article 2 and Article 3 mean the same thing
No. Article 2 is for admitting new states from outside India (e.g., Sikkim). Article 3 is for reorganising existing states.
Practice MCQs on Paschim Banga and Article 3
1. Under which Article of the Constitution can Parliament alter the name of a State? a. Article 2 b. Article 3 c. Article 4 d. Article 368 Ans: B Explanation: Article 3 lets Parliament form new states and alter the areas, boundaries or names of existing states. Article 2 deals with admitting new states into the Union.
2. A Bill to change the name of a State can be introduced in Parliament only: a. After a two-thirds resolution of the State Assembly b. On the recommendation of the President c. With the consent of the Governor d. After approval of the Inter-State Council Ans: B Explanation: Article 3 requires the prior recommendation of the President. The President first refers the Bill to the State Legislature for its views.
3. A law under Article 3 renaming a State is passed by: a. Special majority under Article 368 b. Special majority plus ratification by half the states c. Simple majority of both Houses d. A joint sitting only Ans: C Explanation: Article 4(2) says such laws are not constitutional amendments under Article 368. So a simple majority is enough.
4. Which renaming also needed a constitutional amendment to change a language name in the Eighth Schedule? a. Madras to Tamil Nadu b. Mysore to Karnataka c. Orissa to Odisha d. Uttaranchal to Uttarakhand Ans: C Explanation: The 96th Amendment Act, 2011 replaced “Oriya” with “Odia” in the Eighth Schedule.
5. The views of a State Legislature on a renaming Bill referred under Article 3 are: a. Binding on Parliament b. Binding on the President only c. Not binding; Parliament may proceed d. Needed only when the area is increased Ans: C Explanation: The state must be consulted, but its views are advisory. Parliament may pass the law even if the state objects.
Exam tip: Revise Articles 2, 3 and 4 and the First Schedule together. Prelims questions on the Paschim Banga proposal will test the procedure, not the announcement.
To learn current affairs from exam point of view, Click here.
To know more about the West Bengal renaming proposal, Click here.
Andhra Pradesh has started a pilot to build 3D printed houses for rural poor families. It is described as the country’s first pilot housing project using 3D concrete printing. The Centre has also sanctioned 3 lakh houses for the state under PMAY-G 2.0. This note covers the technology, the scheme’s key provisions and the traps aspirants should watch for.
Why in News?
Chief Minister N. Chandrababu Naidu and Union Rural Development Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan laid the foundation for the 3D printed houses pilot at Burripalem and Obulnayudupalem villages in Tenali mandal, Guntur district.
The Centre also sanctioned 3 lakh houses worth ₹3,600 crore for Andhra Pradesh under the Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana–Gramin (PMAY-G) 2.0. This was raised from the state’s initial proposal after a special request from the state.
Key Facts for Prelims: 3D Printed Houses
Technology:3D concrete printing. A computer-controlled robotic printer lays special concrete layer by layer.
Design input: Digital Building Information Modelling (BIM) designs guide the printer
Speed: 3D printed houses can be built in days instead of months
Benefits:
lower labour needs and less material waste
design flexibility, including curved walls
durability and better thermal comfort
Challenges: High cost of printers, need for special concrete mixes and skilled operators, and limited building codes for 3D printed structures
State goal: A pucca house for every homeless poor family in Andhra Pradesh
How 3D Printed Houses Are Built
Design: The house is modelled digitally using BIM software.
Slicing: Software converts the model into thin layers and printer paths.
Printing: A gantry or robotic-arm printer extrudes fast-setting concrete layer by layer to build the walls.
Finishing: The roof, doors, windows, plumbing and wiring are added in the conventional way.
Static Link: PMAY-G 2.0 Scheme
Ministry:Ministry of Rural Development
Origin: PMAY-G began on 1 April 2016 as a restructured version of the Indira Awaas Yojana (1985)
PMAY-G 2.0: Approved in 2024 to build 2 crore more rural houses from FY 2024-25 to FY 2028-29
Unit assistance:₹1.20 lakh in plain areas; ₹1.30 lakh in hilly states, North-Eastern states and difficult areas
Minimum house size: 25 sq m, including a hygienic cooking space
Convergence:
90 to 95 person-days of unskilled wages under MGNREGS
₹12,000 for a toilet under Swachh Bharat Mission–Gramin or MGNREGS
Payment: Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) into the beneficiary’s bank account
Ownership: In the name of the woman, or jointly with her husband
Cost-sharing ratio under PMAY-G:
Category
Centre : State
Plain-area states
60 : 40
North-Eastern and Himalayan states, and UT of Jammu and Kashmir
90 : 10
Other Union Territories (including Ladakh)
100% Central funding
Quick Revision Table: 3D Printed Houses and PMAY-G 2.0
60:40; 90:10 for NE, Himalayan states and J&K; 100% for other UTs
Predecessor scheme
Indira Awaas Yojana
Trap / Confusing Points on 3D Printed Houses
Common Confusion
Correct Position
These are India’s first 3D printed houses
No. India has 3D printed buildings already, such as a 3D printed house built by an IIT Madras-incubated start-up in 2021 and a 3D printed post office in Bengaluru in 2023. This project is billed as the first pilot housing project using the technology.
PMAY-G is run by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
No. PMAY-G is under the Ministry of Rural Development. PMAY-Urban is under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
PMAY-G replaced Rajiv Awas Yojana
No. PMAY-G replaced the Indira Awaas Yojana. Rajiv Awas Yojana was an urban slum scheme.
All UTs get 90:10 funding
No. Only J&K gets 90:10. Other UTs, including Ladakh, get 100% Central funding.
BIM is a type of printing material
No. Building Information Modelling is a digital design and data model of the building.
Practice MCQs on 3D Printed Houses and PMAY-G
1. In 3D printed houses, the printer builds walls based on: a. Satellite imagery b. Digital Building Information Modelling (BIM) designs c. Cadastral survey maps d. GIS land records Ans: B Explanation: The printer follows BIM-based digital designs and lays concrete layer by layer.
2. The Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana–Gramin is implemented by: a. Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs b. Ministry of Rural Development c. Ministry of Panchayati Raj d. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment Ans: B Explanation: PMAY-G is under the Ministry of Rural Development. PMAY-Urban is under MoHUA.
3. The unit assistance for a house under PMAY-G in plain areas is: a. ₹1.00 lakh b. ₹1.20 lakh c. ₹1.30 lakh d. ₹2.50 lakh Ans: B Explanation: It is ₹1.20 lakh in plains and ₹1.30 lakh in hilly, North-Eastern and difficult areas.
4. What is the Centre-State funding ratio under PMAY-G for Himalayan states? a. 60:40 b. 75:25 c. 90:10 d. 100% Central Ans: C Explanation: North-Eastern and Himalayan states and J&K get 90:10. Plain states share 60:40, and other UTs are fully Centre-funded.
5. PMAY-G was launched by restructuring which earlier scheme? a. Rajiv Awas Yojana b. Indira Awaas Yojana c. Valmiki Ambedkar Awas Yojana d. Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana Ans: B Explanation: Indira Awaas Yojana (1985) was restructured into PMAY-G from 1 April 2016.
Exam tip: For APPSC, link the 3D printed houses pilot with PMAY-G 2.0 provisions. Questions usually test the ministry, the funding ratio and the unit assistance.
To learn current affairs from exam point of view, Click here.
To know more about Andhra Pradesh’s 3D printed houses pilot, Click here.
The Telangana Auto Rickshaw Electric Conversion Scheme 2026 is a Rs 200-crore initiative to convert 18,766 petrol and diesel autos into electric vehicles within Hyderabad’s Core Urban Region Economy (CURE) area. This note explains the Telangana Auto Rickshaw Electric Conversion Scheme and the CURE–PURE–RARE planning zones for TGPSC prelims.
Why in News?
The Telangana Cabinet approved the scheme with an outlay of Rs 200 crore to retrofit/replace 18,766 internal-combustion auto-rickshaws with EVs in the CURE area, cutting urban air pollution and fuel costs for drivers.
Drivers get a subsidy (about Rs 1.5 lakh per vehicle) with the balance through bank finance.
Telangana Auto Rickshaw Electric Conversion Scheme: Key Facts for Prelims
CURE (Core Urban Region Economy): the core metropolitan territory of Hyderabad extending up to the Outer Ring Road (ORR), designed for unified urban planning and governance.
Scheme aligns with the Telangana Electric Vehicle and Energy Storage Policy (road-tax and registration-fee exemptions) and the state’s clean-air goals for Hyderabad.
Retrofitment kits must be approved under the Central Motor Vehicles Rules (AIS-123 standards).
Autos in Hyderabad largely run on LPG/petrol/diesel; three-wheelers are the fastest-electrifying segment in India under FAME-II / PM E-DRIVE.
Interconnected concept: Telangana’s three planning tiers
CURE – Core Urban Region Economy: up to the Outer Ring Road.
PURE – Peri-Urban Region Economy: from the ORR to the Regional Ring Road (RRR).
RARE – Rural Agriculture Region Economy: from the RRR to the state border.
Institutions: HMDA (Hyderabad Metropolitan Development Authority), the proposed Future City (Net Zero) south of ORR, and the RRR (~340 km, northern part approved as NH-161AA).
PM e-Bus Sewa: 10,000 e-buses; National Electric Mobility Mission Plan 2020; GST on EVs 5%.
Quick Revision Table: Telangana Auto Rickshaw Electric Conversion Scheme
Point
Detail
Scheme
Telangana Auto Rickshaw Electric Conversion Scheme 2026
Outlay
Rs 200 crore
Vehicles
18,766 petrol/diesel autos
Area
CURE (Hyderabad core up to ORR)
PURE
ORR to Regional Ring Road
RARE
RRR to state border
Central EV scheme
PM E-DRIVE (2024–26)
Trap / Confusing Points: Telangana Auto Rickshaw Electric Conversion Scheme
Confusion
Correct Position
CURE extends up to the Regional Ring Road
No – up to the Outer Ring Road; PURE is ORR to RRR
Scheme covers the whole state
No – only CURE area of Hyderabad
FAME-II is still the central EV scheme
No – replaced by PM E-DRIVE from October 2024
RARE means Rural Agriculture Region Economy up to the ORR
No – RRR to the state border
5 Practice MCQs on Telangana Auto Rickshaw Electric Conversion Scheme
1. The CURE area in Telangana’s planning framework extends up to the: a. Regional Ring Road b. Outer Ring Road c. Inner Ring Road d. State border Ans: B Explanation: Core Urban Region Economy covers Hyderabad up to the Outer Ring Road.
2. How many auto-rickshaws are targeted under the Telangana Auto Rickshaw Electric Conversion Scheme 2026? a. 8,766 b. 12,000 c. 18,766 d. 25,000 Ans: C Explanation: 18,766 petrol and diesel autos in the CURE area.
3. The zone between the Outer Ring Road and the Regional Ring Road is called: a. CURE b. PURE c. RARE d. SURE Ans: B Explanation: PURE – Peri-Urban Region Economy.
4. Which central scheme replaced FAME-II for electric mobility? a. PM E-DRIVE b. PM e-Bus Sewa c. NEMMP d. PLI-ACC Ans: A Explanation: PM E-DRIVE (2024–26) with Rs 10,900 crore replaced FAME-II.
5. The outlay of the Telangana auto EV conversion scheme is: a. Rs 100 crore b. Rs 200 crore c. Rs 500 crore d. Rs 1,000 crore Ans: B Explanation: Rs 200 crore approved by the state Cabinet.
Exam tip: Revise Telangana Auto Rickshaw Electric Conversion Scheme together with the static links above; UPSC and APPSC prelims often frame questions from these interconnections.
To learn current affairs from exam point of view, Click here.
To know more about the auto EV conversion scheme, Click here.
AgriStack – India’s digital public infrastructure for agriculture – earned Telangana a fresh incentive of Rs 175 crore from the Centre for completing the first milestone of an AgriStack-based fertiliser distribution system. This note explains AgriStack components and the Digital Agriculture Mission for prelims.
Why in News?
Telangana received Rs 175 crore from the Union Government for completing the first milestone in implementing an AgriStack-based fertiliser distribution system, which links fertiliser sales to the Farmer ID and land records.
it: Key Facts for Prelims
AgriStack is a Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) for agriculture creating a unified database of farmers, land and crops – the agricultural analogue of Aadhaar/UPI.
Farmer Registry: each farmer gets a unique Aadhaar-linked digital Farmer ID (Kisan Pehchaan Patra) tied to demographic and land-ownership data.
Crop Sown Registry: seasonal crop data from mobile-based Digital Crop Surveys, geotagging and satellite/drone imagery.
Geo-referenced village maps: cadastral maps linked to land records (Bhu-Naksha style).
Uses: targeted subsidies and DBT, PM-KISAN, crop insurance, credit (Kisan Credit Card), MSP procurement and fertiliser rationalisation.
Incentives to states are released under the Digital Agriculture Mission for milestone-based Farmer ID saturation and integration.
Digital Agriculture Mission – static points
Approved by the Union Cabinet in September 2024 with an outlay of Rs 2,817 crore (Central share Rs 1,940 crore).
Three DPIs: it, Krishi Decision Support System (geospatial), and Soil Profile Maps.
Targets: Farmer IDs for 11 crore farmers; Digital Crop Survey in all districts.
No – a set of registries/DPI layers used by many apps
Farmer ID replaces Aadhaar
No – it is linked to Aadhaar
Digital Agriculture Mission is under MeitY
No – Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
Fertiliser subsidy goes directly to farmers’ bank accounts
No – DBT in fertilisers pays companies after PoS sale to farmers
5 Practice MCQs on it
1. AgriStack is best described as: a. A farm mechanisation scheme b. A Digital Public Infrastructure for agriculture c. A crop insurance scheme d. A fertiliser subsidy scheme Ans: B Explanation: it is a set of digital registries – farmer, crop and land – forming DPI for agriculture.
2. The unique identity issued to farmers under AgriStack is called: a. Kisan Credit Card b. Kisan Pehchaan Patra c. Soil Health Card d. Bhu-Aadhaar Ans: B Explanation: Farmer ID / Kisan Pehchaan Patra is Aadhaar-linked and tied to land records.
3. The Digital Agriculture Mission was approved by the Union Cabinet in: a. 2021 b. 2022 c. 2024 d. 2025 Ans: C Explanation: Approved in September 2024 with Rs 2,817 crore outlay.
4. Which of the following is NOT one of the three DPIs under the Digital Agriculture Mission? a. it b. Krishi Decision Support System c. Soil Profile Maps d. e-NAM Ans: D Explanation: e-NAM is a separate online agri-marketing platform launched in 2016.
5. The Crop Sown Registry under AgriStack is populated mainly through: a. Census data b. Digital Crop Survey with geotagging c. Bank records d. Fertiliser sales Ans: B Explanation: Mobile-based digital crop surveys with geotagging and satellite imagery feed the registry.
Exam tip: Revise it together with the static links above; UPSC and APPSC prelims often frame questions from these interconnections.
To learn current affairs from exam point of view, Click here.
To know more about Telangana’s AgriStack incentive, Click here.
