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Indian Society

APPSC Group 2 Prelims 2024 (held 25 February 2024) Indian Society questions, in English and Telugu, with answers from the APPSC official final key and detailed explanations. Try each question first, then tap Show answer.

Q.61
APPSC Group 2 · 2024 · PrelimsIndian Society

APPSC Group 2 Prelims 2024 (25 Feb 2024), Q.61

English

To eradicate child marriages, a unique data driven approach like ALIVA is adopted by:

  1. (1)Rajgarh district of Madhya Pradesh
  2. (2)Wardha district of Maharashtra
  3. (3)Nayagarh district of Odisha
  4. (4)Warangal district of Telangana
తెలుగు

బాల్య వివాహాలను నిర్మూలించడానికి అలీవా (ALIVA) వంటి ప్రత్యేకమైన డేటా ఆధారిత విధానాన్ని ఎవరు అవలంబిస్తున్నారు :

  1. (1)మధ్యప్రదేశ్‌లోని రాజ్‌గఢ్ జిల్లా
  2. (2)మహారాష్ట్రలోని వార్ధా జిల్లా
  3. (3)ఒడిసాలోని నయాగర్ జిల్లా
  4. (4)తెలంగాణలోని వరంగల్ జిల్లా
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (3) Nayagarh district of Odisha

Why (3) is correct: Nayagarh district administration launched ALIVA in January 2022. Every Anganwadi centre keeps an ALIVA register for each adolescent girl (10–19 years) with her birth date, Aadhaar, family, education and health details. The age is certified by the school headmaster, the father, the supervisor and the Child Marriage Prohibition Officer. Police and officials check these registers when a child marriage is reported, so parents cannot lie about the girl’s age.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (1) Rajgarh (MP), (2) Wardha (Maharashtra) and (4) Warangal (Telangana): ALIVA is not their initiative. It belongs only to Nayagarh, Odisha.

Concept: Child marriage is governed by the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006: minimum age 18 for girls and 21 for boys. Each State appoints Child Marriage Prohibition Officers (CMPOs) under the Act. Odisha aims to be child-marriage free by 2030.

Source: The Hindu, 24 Sep 2022

Q.62
APPSC Group 2 · 2024 · PrelimsIndian Society

APPSC Group 2 Prelims 2024 (25 Feb 2024), Q.62

English

A circular structure used by Zoroastrians for excarnation or the disposal of human dead bodies through exposure to the natural elements and scavenger animals such as vultures is called:

  1. (1)Dakhma
  2. (2)Aparigraha
  3. (3)Sallekhana
  4. (4)Shenshai
తెలుగు

జొరాస్ట్రియన్లు ఆచారం లో చనిపోయినవారి మృతదేహాలు కుళ్లిపోవడానికి వాటిని సహజ మూలకాలు మరియు రాబందులు వంటి స్కావెంజర్ జంతువులకు బహిర్గతం చేయడం కోసం ఉపయోగించే వృత్తాకార నిర్మాణాన్ని ఏమని పిలుస్తారు :

  1. (1)దఖ్మా
  2. (2)అపరిగ్రహ
  3. (3)సల్లేఖనా
  4. (4)షెన్షాయ్
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (1) Dakhma

Why (1) is correct: A Dakhma, the “Tower of Silence”, is a round stone tower where Parsis (Zoroastrians) place their dead. Zoroastrians believe a corpse must not pollute the sacred elements of earth, water and fire. So the body is left open to the sky and vultures eat it, and the bones fall into a central pit. Mumbai’s Tower of Silence is at Malabar Hill (Doongerwadi).

Why the others are wrong:

  • (2) Aparigraha means non-possession. It is one of the five great vows of Jainism, not a structure.
  • (3) Sallekhana is the Jain practice of voluntarily giving up food and water at the end of life. It is a ritual, not a structure.
  • (4) Shenshai is one of the Parsi religious calendars. It has nothing to do with disposing of the dead.

Concept: Parsis are one of India’s six notified minority communities (with Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists and Jains) under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992. The fall in vulture numbers, mainly due to the veterinary drug diclofenac, has disrupted dakhma rites. Related: National Commission for Minorities.

Source: Municipal Corporation of Greater Mumbai, Heritage Site: Tower of Silence

Q.63
APPSC Group 2 · 2024 · PrelimsIndian Society

APPSC Group 2 Prelims 2024 (25 Feb 2024), Q.63

English

‘Diku Andi’ means:

  1. (1)Marriage by exchange in Koya and Savara tribes
  2. (2)Marriage by capture in Naga tribes
  3. (3)Marriage by probation in Kuki tribe
  4. (4)Marriage by negotiation in Ho tribes
తెలుగు

‘డికు అంది’ అంటే :

  1. (1)కోయ మరియు సవర తెగలలో వినిమయం ద్వారా జరిగే వివాహం
  2. (2)నాగ తెగలలో అపహరణ ద్వారా జరిగే వివాహం
  3. (3)కుకీ తెగలో పరిశీలనా (probation) ద్వారా జరిగే వివాహం
  4. (4)హో (Ho) తెగలలో సంప్రదింపుల ద్వారా జరిగే వివాహం
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (4) Marriage by negotiation in Ho tribes

Why (4) is correct: “Andi” is the Ho word for marriage. The Ho are a Munda tribe of Jharkhand and Odisha. In their society, Diku Andi is listed as marriage by negotiation, an arranged marriage. A middleman, usually the groom’s village headman, settles the bride-price with the bride’s father.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (1), (2) and (3) name other tribes: Koya and Savara, Naga, and Kuki. “Diku Andi” is a Ho-language term, so it cannot describe their customs.
  • (2) also gets the type wrong. Among the Ho, marriage by capture is called Oportipi, not Diku Andi.

Concept: The Ho have several forms of marriage:

  • Andi or Diku Andi: negotiation.
  • Oportipi: capture.
  • Rajikhushi: mutual consent.
  • Anader: intrusion, where the girl forces herself into the boy’s house.

The Ho practise tribe endogamy and clan exogamy and pay bride-price. Tribal ways of acquiring a mate (negotiation, capture, service, exchange, probation, intrusion) are a standard Indian Society topic.

Source: IJNRD (2023), “Change and continuity in Ho tribe”, citing K.K. Misra, Social Structure and Change among the Ho of Orissa

Q.64
APPSC Group 2 · 2024 · PrelimsIndian Society

APPSC Group 2 Prelims 2024 (25 Feb 2024), Q.64

English

The online portal developed by the Government of India for effective enforcement of the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, (which was amended in 2016), is:

  1. (1)SPARC
  2. (2)SRIJAN
  3. (3)YUKTI
  4. (4)PENCIL
తెలుగు

బాలల మరియు కౌమార లేబర్ (నిషేధం మరియు నియంత్రణ) చట్టం 1986 (దీనిని 2016లో సవరించారు) సమర్థవంతంగా అమలు చేయడం కోసం భారత ప్రభుత్వం ఏ ఆన్‌లైన్ పోర్టల్ ను అభివృద్ధి చేసింది :

  1. (1)స్పార్క్ (SPARC)
  2. (2)శ్రీజన్ (SRIJAN)
  3. (3)యుక్తి (YUKTI)
  4. (4)పెన్సిల్ (PENCIL)
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (4) PENCIL

Why (4) is correct: PENCIL stands for Platform for Effective Enforcement for No Child Labour. The Ministry of Labour and Employment launched it on 26 September 2017. It connects the Centre, States, districts and National Child Labour Project (NCLP) societies. Anyone can file a child-labour complaint on it, and the complaint goes to the District Nodal Officer.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (1) SPARC (Scheme for Promotion of Academic and Research Collaboration) is a Ministry of Education scheme for research collaboration with foreign universities.
  • (2) SRIJAN is the Ministry of Defence portal for indigenising defence imports.
  • (3) YUKTI is a Ministry of Education portal (2020) that tracks innovation and academic initiatives.

Concept: The 2016 amendment renamed the Act the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act and took effect on 1 Sep 2016.

  • It completely bans employing children below 14.
  • It bans employing adolescents (14–18) in hazardous occupations.
  • India has ratified ILO Conventions 138 and 182.
  • Article 24 of the Constitution prohibits employing children below 14 in factories, mines and hazardous work.

Source: PIB, Year End Review 2017: Ministry of Labour & Employment

Q.65
APPSC Group 2 · 2024 · PrelimsIndian Society

APPSC Group 2 Prelims 2024 (25 Feb 2024), Q.65

English

Consider the following statements:

I. W.P. Scott defined divorce as ‘an institutionalised arrangement for terminating the marriage relationship and allowing each partner the right to remarry’.
II. The first legislation in respect of the dissolution of marriage in India was enacted in 1869, and is ‘Parsi Marriage and Divorce Act’.
III. The irresponsible departure from the home on the part of husband, leaving the family to fend for itself is called as ‘the poor man’s divorce’.

Which of the above given statements are correct?

  1. (1)I and II only
  2. (2)II and III only
  3. (3)I and III only
  4. (4)All of the above
తెలుగు

ఈ క్రింది ప్రకటనలను పరిగణించండి :

I. డబ్ల్యు.పి. స్కాట్ విడాకులను ‘వివాహ సంబంధాన్ని రద్దు చేయడానికి మరియు ప్రతి భాగస్వామికి పునర్వివాహం చేసుకునే హక్కును అనుమతించే సంస్థాగత ఏర్పాటు’ అని నిర్వచించాడు.
II. భారతదేశంలో వివాహ రద్దుకు సంబంధించి 1869లో రూపొందించబడిన మొదటి చట్టం మరియు ‘పార్సీ వివాహాలు మరియు విడాకుల చట్టం’.
III. ఏ భర్త అయినా బాధ్యతారహితంగా ఇంటి నుండి వెళ్లిపోవడాన్ని, కుటుంబాన్ని తన కోసం వదిలేయడాన్ని ‘ద పూర్ మెన్స్ డివోర్స్’ (the poor man’s divorce) అని అంటారు.

పైన ఇచ్చిన ప్రకటనలలో ఏవి సరైనవి ?

  1. (1)I మరియు II మాత్రమే
  2. (2)II మరియు III మాత్రమే
  3. (3)I మరియు III మాత్రమే
  4. (4)పైవన్నీ
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (3) I and III only

Why (3) is correct:

  • Statement I is correct. This is W.P. Scott’s standard sociological definition of divorce. Divorce ends a marriage legally and lets both partners remarry.
  • Statement II is wrong. The Parsi Marriage and Divorce Act was passed in 1865 (Act XV of 1865), not 1869, and was later replaced by the Parsi Marriage and Divorce Act, 1936. The 1869 law is the Indian Divorce Act, which applies to Christians. Statement II mixes up the two laws.
  • Statement III is correct. When a husband simply walks out and leaves the family to fend for itself, without any legal divorce, sociologists call it desertion or “the poor man’s divorce”. It happens mostly among poor families who cannot afford court proceedings.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (1) I and II only: II is wrong, and III is left out.
  • (2) II and III only: II is wrong, and I is left out.
  • (4) All of the above: II is wrong.

Concept: Personal-law divorce statutes in India:

  • Parsi Marriage and Divorce Act, 1865, replaced in 1936
  • Indian Divorce Act, 1869 (Christians)
  • Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939
  • Special Marriage Act, 1954
  • Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 (Section 13 lists the grounds for divorce)

Uniform Civil Code moves such as Uttarakhand’s and Gujarat’s change this picture. Related: Gujarat UCC Act 2026.

Source: The Parsi Marriage and Divorce Act, 1936 (text, Indian Kanoon)

Q.66
APPSC Group 2 · 2024 · PrelimsIndian Society

APPSC Group 2 Prelims 2024 (25 Feb 2024), Q.66

English

Ravindra and Seema are husband and wife. Krishna and Madhavi are children of Ravindra-Seema. Madhavi is married to Harish and Jyothi is the daughter of Madhavi-Harish. Then the Consanguineous Kinship is between:

  1. (1)Ravindra and Seema
  2. (2)Madhavi and Harish
  3. (3)Krishna and Jyothi
  4. (4)Krishna and Harish
తెలుగు

రవీంద్ర మరియు సీమ భార్యాభర్తలు. కృష్ణ మరియు మాధవిలు రవీంద్ర-సీమల పిల్లలు. మాధవి హరీష్‌ను వివాహం చేసుకుంది మరియు జ్యోతి మాధవి-హరీష్‌ల కుమార్తె. అప్పుడు ఏకరక్త బంధుత్వం ఎవరి మధ్య ఉంటుంది :

  1. (1)రవీంద్ర మరియు సీమ
  2. (2)మాధవి మరియు హరీష్
  3. (3)కృష్ణ మరియు జ్యోతి
  4. (4)కృష్ణ మరియు హరీష్
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (3) Krishna and Jyothi

Why (3) is correct: Consanguineous kinship means kinship by blood (descent). Krishna is Madhavi’s brother and Jyothi is Madhavi’s daughter, so Krishna is Jyothi’s maternal uncle (mama). They share common blood through Ravindra-Seema.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (1) Ravindra and Seema are husband and wife: related by marriage, so this is affinal kinship.
  • (2) Madhavi and Harish are husband and wife: also affinal.
  • (4) Krishna and Harish are brothers-in-law: related only through Madhavi’s marriage, so affinal.

Concept: Kinship has two basic types: consanguineous (blood: parent–child, siblings, uncle–niece, cousins) and affinal (marriage: spouses, in-laws). Kin are also graded as primary, secondary and tertiary. The uncle–niece link here is secondary kin.

Source: NIOS Sociology (331), Lesson 14: Kinship

Q.67
APPSC Group 2 · 2024 · PrelimsIndian Society

APPSC Group 2 Prelims 2024 (25 Feb 2024), Q.67

English

As per the recommendations of the Sachar Committee, which among the following Muslim groups needs additional attention, similar to that of Hindu OBCs?

  1. (1)Ajlaf
  2. (2)Arzal
  3. (3)Ashraf
  4. (4)Shaikh and Syed
తెలుగు

సచార్ కమిటీ సిఫార్సుల ప్రకారం ఈ క్రింది ఏ ముస్లిం సమూహానికి హిందూ OBCల మాదిరిగా అదనపు శ్రద్ధ అవసరం ఉంది ?

  1. (1)అజ్లాఫ్
  2. (2)అర్జల్
  3. (3)అష్రాఫ్
  4. (4)షేక్ మరియు సయ్యద్
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (1) Ajlaf

Why (1) is correct: The Sachar Committee (2006) grouped Indian Muslims into three: Ashrafs (no social disabilities), Ajlafs (equivalent to Hindu OBCs) and Arzals (equivalent to Hindu SCs). So the group needing attention similar to Hindu OBCs is the Ajlafs.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (2) Arzals are treated as equivalent to Hindu SCs, not OBCs. The Committee suggested they be treated as Most Backward Classes.
  • (3) Ashrafs are the socially advantaged upper groups.
  • (4) Shaikh and Syed are among the Ashraf groups.

Concept: The Sachar Committee was set up in 2005 under Justice Rajinder Sachar on the social, economic and educational status of Muslims, and reported in 2006. Its follow-ups include the Equal Opportunity Commission idea and the PM’s New 15-Point Programme for minorities. Related: National Commission for Minorities.

Source: Sachar Committee Report (2006), full text

Q.68
APPSC Group 2 · 2024 · PrelimsIndian Society

APPSC Group 2 Prelims 2024 (25 Feb 2024), Q.68

English

In the lines of Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act 2013, which of the following Robots can be used to end India’s manual scavenging?

  1. (1)Kempa
  2. (2)Vyommitra
  3. (3)Bandicoot
  4. (4)ManavSudh
తెలుగు

మాన్యువల్ స్కావెంజర్ల ఉపాధి నిషేధం మరియు వారి పునరావాస చట్టం 2013 ప్రకారం, ఈ క్రింది వాటిలో ఏ రోబోట్‌ను ఉపయోగించి భారతదేశ మాన్యువల్ స్కావెంజింగ్ ఉపాధిని నిషేదించవచ్చు ?

  1. (1)కెంపా
  2. (2)వ్యోమిత్ర
  3. (3)బండికూట్
  4. (4)మానవ్‌సుధ్
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (3) Bandicoot

Why (3) is correct: Bandicoot is a robotic manhole-cleaning machine made by Genrobotics, a Kerala start-up. Its robotic arm goes into the manhole and removes sludge and blockages, so no worker has to enter the sewer.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (2) Vyommitra is ISRO’s half-humanoid robot for the Gaganyaan human spaceflight mission. It is not a sanitation robot.
  • (1) Kempa and (4) ManavSudh are not the recognised manhole-cleaning robot named in government and municipal use.

Concept: The 2013 Act bans manual scavenging and hazardous cleaning of sewers and septic tanks, and provides for identifying and rehabilitating manual scavengers. The NAMASTE scheme (2023) covers safety and mechanisation for sanitation workers. Article 17 (abolition of untouchability) is the constitutional link.

Source: PIB: mechanised sewer cleaning, Bandicoot

Q.69
APPSC Group 2 · 2024 · PrelimsIndian Society

APPSC Group 2 Prelims 2024 (25 Feb 2024), Q.69

English

In which of the following cases is it alleged that the verdict of the Supreme Court of India diluted the stringent provisions of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989?

  1. (1)K.C. Vasanth Kumar & Another vs State of Karnataka
  2. (2)Srish Kumar Choudhury vs State of Tripura
  3. (3)Om Prakash Mahajan vs State of Madhya Pradesh
  4. (4)Subhash Kashinath Mahajan vs State of Maharashtra
తెలుగు

ఈ క్రింది వాటిలో ఏ కేసులో భారత సుప్రీంకోర్టు తీర్పు షెడ్యూల్డ్ కులం మరియు షెడ్యూల్డ్ తెగ (అట్రాసిటీల నిరోధక) చట్టం, 1989లోని కఠినమైన నిబంధనలను పలుచన చేసిందని ఆరోపించబడింది ?

  1. (1)కె.సి. వసంత్ కుమార్ మరియు ఇతరులు vs స్టేట్ ఆఫ్ కర్ణాటక
  2. (2)శ్రీష్ కుమార్ చౌదరి vs స్టేట్ ఆఫ్ త్రిపుర
  3. (3)ఓం ప్రకాష్ మహజన్ vs స్టేట్ ఆఫ్ మధ్యప్రదేశ్
  4. (4)సుభాష్ కాశీనాథ్ మహజన్ vs స్టేట్ ఆఫ్ మహారాష్ట్ర
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (4) Subhash Kashinath Mahajan vs State of Maharashtra

Why (4) is correct: In Dr. Subhash Kashinath Mahajan v. State of Maharashtra (March 2018), the Supreme Court allowed anticipatory bail, required a preliminary enquiry before an FIR, and required approval before arrest under the Atrocities Act. This was widely criticised as diluting the Act. Parliament reversed it through the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Amendment Act, 2018, which inserted Section 18A.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (1) K.C. Vasanth Kumar v. State of Karnataka (1985) is a reservation case on criteria for backwardness, not the Atrocities Act.
  • (2) and (3) are not the case linked to diluting the Atrocities Act.

Concept: Section 18A says no preliminary enquiry is needed before an FIR, no approval is needed before arrest, and the anticipatory bail bar (Section 18) applies. The Supreme Court upheld Section 18A in Prathvi Raj Chauhan v. Union of India (2020). Constitutional base: Articles 17 and 46.

Source: PIB: Parliament passes SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Amendment Bill, 2018

Q.70
APPSC Group 2 · 2024 · PrelimsIndian Society

APPSC Group 2 Prelims 2024 (25 Feb 2024), Q.70

English

The Shuddhi Movement to bring back the people who transformed their religion to Islam and Christianity from Hinduism was started by:

  1. (1)Brahmo Samaj
  2. (2)Satyashodhak Samaj
  3. (3)Ramakrishna Mission
  4. (4)Arya Samaj
తెలుగు

హిందూ మతం నుండి తమ మతాన్ని ఇస్లాం మరియు క్రైస్తవ మతంలోకి మార్చుకున్న ప్రజలను తిరిగి హిందూ మతంలోకి తీసుకురావడానికి శుద్ధి ఉద్యమాన్ని ఎవరు ప్రారంభించారు :

  1. (1)బ్రహ్మ సమాజం
  2. (2)సత్యశోధక్ సమాజం
  3. (3)రామకృష్ణ మిషన్
  4. (4)ఆర్య సమాజం
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (4) Arya Samaj

Why (4) is correct: The Arya Samaj, founded by Swami Dayanand Saraswati in 1875, prescribed Shuddhi (purification) to bring converts to Islam and Christianity back into Hinduism. The movement became prominent in the 1920s under Swami Shraddhanand.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (1) Brahmo Samaj (Raja Ram Mohan Roy, 1828) stood for monotheism and social reform, not reconversion.
  • (2) Satyashodhak Samaj (Jyotiba Phule, 1873) fought caste and Brahminical domination.
  • (3) Ramakrishna Mission (Swami Vivekananda, 1897) focused on service and Vedanta.

Concept: Arya Samaj’s slogan was “Go back to the Vedas”. Dayanand wrote Satyarth Prakash. The Samaj also ran DAV schools. Related: Social Reforms hub.

Source: NIOS Secondary: Religious and Social Reform Movements

Q.71
APPSC Group 2 · 2024 · PrelimsIndian Society

APPSC Group 2 Prelims 2024 (25 Feb 2024), Q.71

English

India’s first high-tech sports training centre for Divyangjan, ‘The Atal Bihari Vajpayee Training Centre for Disability Sports’ inaugurated on 2nd October, 2023 is located at:

  1. (1)Rajkot, Gujarat
  2. (2)Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh
  3. (3)Ahmedabad, Gujarat
  4. (4)Prayagraj, Uttar Pradesh
తెలుగు

2వ అక్టోబర్, 2023న దివ్యాంగుల కోసం ప్రారంభించబడిన భారతదేశపు మొట్టమొదటి అత్యాధునిక క్రీడా శిక్షణా కేంద్రం, ‘ది అటల్ బిహారీ వాజ్‌పేయి ట్రైనింగ్ సెంటర్ ఫర్ డిజేబిలిటీ స్పోర్ట్స్’ ఎక్కడ నిర్మించబడింది :

  1. (1)రాజ్‌కోట్, గుజరాత్
  2. (2)గ్వాలియర్, మధ్యప్రదేశ్
  3. (3)అహ్మదాబాద్, గుజరాత్
  4. (4)ప్రయాగ్‌రాజ్, ఉత్తరప్రదేశ్
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (2) Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh

Why (2) is correct: PM Narendra Modi inaugurated the centre in Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh, on 2 October 2023 (Gandhi Jayanti). It is an autonomous body of the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, on a 34-acre campus.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (1) Rajkot, (3) Ahmedabad and (4) Prayagraj: the centre is not located there. It is in Gwalior.

Concept: The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 recognises 21 disabilities and requires sports facilities for PwDs. The Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities runs schemes like ADIP (aids and appliances).

Source: PIB, 2 Oct 2023

Q.72
APPSC Group 2 · 2024 · PrelimsIndian Society

APPSC Group 2 Prelims 2024 (25 Feb 2024), Q.72

English

Under whose Chairmanship was a high-level committee on socio-economic, health and educational status of tribal communities of India set up by the Prime Minister’s Office in 2013?

  1. (1)Dr. Joseph Bara
  2. (2)Dr. Kamal K. Misra
  3. (3)Dr. Hrusikesh Panda
  4. (4)Prof. Virginius Xaxa
తెలుగు

భారతదేశంలోని గిరిజన వర్గాల సామాజిక-ఆర్థిక, ఆరోగ్యం మరియు విద్యా స్థితిగతులపై ఉన్నత స్థాయి కమిటీని 2013లో ప్రధానమంత్రి కార్యాలయం ఎవరి అధ్యక్షతన ఏర్పాటు చేసింది ?

  1. (1)డాక్టర్ జోసెఫ్ బారా
  2. (2)డాక్టర్ కమల్ కె. మిశ్రా
  3. (3)డాక్టర్ హృషికేశ్ పాండా
  4. (4)ప్రొఫెసర్ వర్జీనియస్ క్సాక్సా
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (4) Prof. Virginius Xaxa

Why (4) is correct: The PMO set up the High Level Committee in 2013 under sociologist Prof. Virginius Xaxa. It submitted its report in May 2014.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (1) Joseph Bara, (2) K.K. Misra and (3) Hrusikesh Panda were members of the same committee, not its chairman.

Concept: The Xaxa Committee looked at tribal land alienation, displacement, PESA and Forest Rights Act implementation, health and education gaps. Constitutional base: Fifth and Sixth Schedules, and Article 342 (notification of STs).

Source: Ministry of Tribal Affairs: Xaxa Committee Report (2014)

Q.73
APPSC Group 2 · 2024 · PrelimsIndian Society

APPSC Group 2 Prelims 2024 (25 Feb 2024), Q.73

English

Who stated that ‘I measure the progress of a community by the degree of progress which women have achieved’?

  1. (1)Dr. Vina Mazumdar
  2. (2)Pandita Ramabai
  3. (3)Mahatma Gandhi
  4. (4)Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
తెలుగు

‘మహిళలు సాధించిన ప్రగతి స్థాయిని బట్టి నేను సమాజ ప్రగతిని కొలుస్తాను’ అని ఎవరు పేర్కొన్నారు ?

  1. (1)డాక్టర్ వినా మజుందార్
  2. (2)పండిత రమాబాయి
  3. (3)మహాత్మా గాంధీ
  4. (4)డాక్టర్ బి.ఆర్. అంబేద్కర్
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (4) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Why (4) is correct: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar said this at the All-India Depressed Classes Women’s Conference in Nagpur on 20 July 1942. It appears in his collected writings and speeches.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (1) Vina Mazumdar, (2) Pandita Ramabai and (3) Mahatma Gandhi all worked for women’s rights, but this quote is Ambedkar’s.

Concept: Ambedkar’s work for women includes the Hindu Code Bill, which he resigned over in 1951, and maternity-benefit and equal-pay ideas as Labour Member. Vina Mazumdar was member-secretary of the Towards Equality report (1974). Pandita Ramabai founded Sharada Sadan.

Source: Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar: Writings and Speeches, Vol. 17 Part III, p. 311

Q.74
APPSC Group 2 · 2024 · PrelimsIndian Society

APPSC Group 2 Prelims 2024 (25 Feb 2024), Q.74

English

After a landmark Judgement on Triple Talaq in 2017, which among the following methods of divorce practised in Muslim society was recently challenged in the Apex Court of India?

  1. (1)Talaq-e-Hasan
  2. (2)Talaq-i-Tafweez
  3. (3)Talaq-e-Ahsan
  4. (4)Lian
తెలుగు

ట్రిపుల్ తలాక్‌పై 2017లో సంచలనాత్మకమైన తీర్పు తర్వాత, ముస్లిం సమాజంలో అనుసరించే ఏ విడాకుల పద్ధతి గురించి ఇటీవల భారతదేశంలోని అత్యున్నత న్యాయస్థానంలో సవాలు చేయబడింది ?

  1. (1)తలాక్-ఇ-హసన్
  2. (2)తలాక్-ఇ-తఫ్వీజ్
  3. (3)తలాక్-ఇ-అహ్సాన్
  4. (4)లియన్
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (1) Talaq-e-Hasan

Why (1) is correct: In 2022, Benazeer Heena filed a writ petition in the Supreme Court challenging Talaq-e-Hasan and other unilateral extra-judicial talaq. Under Talaq-e-Hasan, the husband pronounces talaq once a month over three months. The case is pending.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (2) Talaq-i-Tafweez is delegated divorce, where the husband gives the wife the right to divorce. It was not the method challenged.
  • (3) Talaq-e-Ahsan is a single pronouncement followed by the iddat period. It was not challenged.
  • (4) Lian is divorce following the husband’s accusation of adultery. It was not the subject of the petition.

Concept: Shayara Bano v. Union of India (2017) struck down instant triple talaq (talaq-e-biddat). The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019 made it a cognizable offence. Related: Gujarat UCC Act 2026.

Source: Supreme Court Observer: Benazeer Heena v. Union of India

Q.75
APPSC Group 2 · 2024 · PrelimsIndian Society

APPSC Group 2 Prelims 2024 (25 Feb 2024), Q.75

English

Which among the following IT initiatives by the Ministry of Home Affairs facilitates dissemination of information about significant crimes, including Human Trafficking across the country on real time basis and enables Interstate co-ordination?

  1. (1)Investigation Tracking System for Sexual Offences (ITSSO)
  2. (2)National Database of Sexual Offenders (NDSO)
  3. (3)Crime Multi Agency Centre (Cri-MAC)
  4. (4)Special Police Unit for Women and Children (SPUWAC)
తెలుగు

దేశవ్యాప్తంగా మానవ అక్రమ రవాణాతో సహా ముఖ్యమైన నేరాల గురించిన సమాచారాన్ని ఎప్పటికప్పుడు అందించడానికి మరియు వివిధ రాష్ట్రాల మధ్య సమన్వయం చేయడానికి కేంద్ర హోం వ్యవహారాల మంత్రిత్వ శాఖ చే ప్రారంభించబడిన IT సాధనం ఏది ?

  1. (1)ఇన్వెస్టిగేషన్ ట్రాకింగ్ సిస్టమ్ ఫర్ సెక్సువల్ ఆఫెన్సెస్ (ITSSO)
  2. (2)నేషనల్ డేటాబేస్ ఆఫ్ సెక్సువల్ ఆఫెండర్స్ (NDSO)
  3. (3)క్రైమ్ మల్టీ ఏజెన్సీ సెంటర్ (Cri-MAC)
  4. (4)స్పెషల్ యూనిట్ ఫర్ విమెన్ అండ్ చిల్డ్రన్ (SPUWAC)
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (3) Crime Multi Agency Centre (Cri-MAC)

Why (3) is correct: Cri-MAC was launched on 12 March 2020 at NCRB’s Inception Day. It is a national communication platform through which police units share real-time alerts on significant crimes, including human trafficking, and coordinate across States.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (1) ITSSO is an online tool to monitor time-bound investigation (two months) of sexual offences under the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2018.
  • (2) NDSO is a registry of convicted sexual offenders for police use.
  • (4) SPUWAC is a police unit for women and children (Delhi Police), not an MHA national IT platform.

Concept: “Police” and “Public order” are State List subjects, so MHA supports States with IT tools: CCTNS, ICJS, Cri-MAC, ITSSO and NDSO. Article 23 prohibits trafficking in human beings.

Source: PIB: MHA measures against human trafficking (Cri-MAC)

Q.76
APPSC Group 2 · 2024 · PrelimsIndian Society

APPSC Group 2 Prelims 2024 (25 Feb 2024), Q.76

English

Who defined ‘Communalism as the political assertiveness of a community to maintain its identity in a plural society undergoing modernization’?

  1. (1)Prof. Ram Ahuja
  2. (2)Bipin Chandra
  3. (3)Majumdar and Madan
  4. (4)Robert Melson and Howard Wolpe
తెలుగు

‘ఆధునికీకరణకు లోనవుతున్న బహువచన సమాజంలో తన గుర్తింపును కొనసాగించడానికి ఒక సంఘం యొక్క రాజకీయ దృఢత్వమే కమ్యూనలిజం’ అని ఎవరు నిర్వచించారు ?

  1. (1)ప్రొఫెసర్ రామ్ అహుజా
  2. (2)బిపిన్ చంద్ర
  3. (3)మజుందార్ మరియు మదన్
  4. (4)రాబర్ట్ మెల్సన్ మరియు హోవార్డ్ వోల్ప్
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (4) Robert Melson and Howard Wolpe

Why (4) is correct: Robert Melson and Howard Wolpe gave this definition in their paper “Modernization and the Politics of Communalism: A Theoretical Perspective” (American Political Science Review, 1970). For them, communalism is a community’s political assertion of its identity in a plural, modernising society.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (1) Ram Ahuja’s textbook discusses communalism, but this definition is not his.
  • (2) Bipin Chandra saw communalism as an ideology built on the belief that people of one religion share common secular interests. That is a different definition.
  • (3) Majumdar and Madan are known for social anthropology texts, not this definition.

Concept: Bipin Chandra describes three stages of communalism: communal nationalism, liberal communalism and extreme communalism. Communalism is a standard Indian Society topic along with regionalism, casteism and secularism.

Source: Melson & Wolpe (1970), American Political Science Review 64(4)

Q.77
APPSC Group 2 · 2024 · PrelimsIndian Society

APPSC Group 2 Prelims 2024 (25 Feb 2024), Q.77

English

The Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 enacted by the Government of India came into force from:

  1. (1)20th May, 1961
  2. (2)1st June, 1961
  3. (3)20th June, 1961
  4. (4)1st July, 1961
తెలుగు

భారత ప్రభుత్వం రూపొందించిన వరకట్న నిషేధ చట్టం, 1961 ఎప్పటినుండి అమలులోకి వచ్చింది :

  1. (1)మే 20, 1961
  2. (2)జూన్ 1, 1961
  3. (3)జూన్ 20, 1961
  4. (4)జూలై 1, 1961
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (4) 1st July, 1961

Why (4) is correct: The Act came into force on 1 July 1961, by a government notification dated 20 June 1961.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (1) 20 May 1961 is the date the Act was enacted (received assent), not the date it came into force.
  • (3) 20 June 1961 is the date of the notification that fixed the commencement date.
  • (2) 1 June 1961 has no link to the Act.

Concept: Other linked provisions: Section 304B IPC (dowry death, added 1986), now Section 80 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, and Section 498A IPC (cruelty), now Section 85 BNS. Dowry Prohibition Officers are appointed under the Act.

Source: India Code: Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961

Q.78
APPSC Group 2 · 2024 · PrelimsIndian Society

APPSC Group 2 Prelims 2024 (25 Feb 2024), Q.78

English

Consider the following statements:

I. In the 15th Lok Sabha the percentage of elected women members in Lok Sabha had crossed 10% of its total strength for the first time.
II. The 17th Lok Sabha has a higher percentage of representation of elected women members than before and it is the highest ever since the independence of India.
III. The women members elected to the Legislative Assembly of Andhra Pradesh in General Elections 2019 was 11·74% of its total strength.
IV. The Women’s Reservation Bill, 2023 got the assent of the President on 28th September, 2023.

Which among the above given statements are correct?

  1. (1)I, II and III only
  2. (2)I, III and IV only
  3. (3)I, II and IV only
  4. (4)II, III and IV only
తెలుగు

ఈ క్రింది ప్రకటనలను పరిగణించండి :

I. 15వ లోక్‌సభలో ఎన్నికైన మహిళా సభ్యుల శాతం మొదటిసారిగా మొత్తం లోక్‌సభ సభ్యుల బలంలో 10% దాటింది.
II. 17వ లోక్ సభలో ఎన్నుకోబడిన మహిళా సభ్యుల ప్రాతినిధ్యం గతంలో కంటే ఎక్కువ శాతం ఉంది మరియు భారతదేశానికి స్వాతంత్ర్యం వచ్చిన తర్వాత ఇది అత్యధికంగా ఉంది.
III. 2019 సార్వత్రిక ఎన్నికలలో ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్ శాసనసభ మొత్తం బలంలో, ఎన్నికైన మహిళా సభ్యులు 11·74% ఉన్నారు.
IV. మహిళా రిజర్వేషన్ బిల్లు 2023 సెప్టెంబర్ 28, 2023న రాష్ట్రపతి ఆమోదం పొందింది.

పైన ఇచ్చిన స్టేట్‌మెంట్‌లలో ఏవి సరైనవి ?

  1. (1)I, II మరియు III మాత్రమే
  2. (2)I, III మరియు IV మాత్రమే
  3. (3)I, II మరియు IV మాత్రమే
  4. (4)II, III మరియు IV మాత్రమే
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (3) I, II and IV only

Why (3) is correct:

  • I is correct. The 15th Lok Sabha (2009) had 59 women, about 10.9%, the first time above 10%.
  • II is correct. The 17th Lok Sabha (2019) had 78 women, about 14.4%, the highest at that time.
  • III is wrong. In 2019, 14 women were elected to the 175-member AP Assembly, which is about 8%, not 11.74%.
  • IV is correct. The President gave assent on 28 September 2023, and it became the Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (1) and (2) include III, which is wrong.
  • (4) includes III and leaves out I.

Concept: The 106th Amendment (Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam) reserves one-third of seats for women in the Lok Sabha, State Assemblies and the Delhi Assembly (Articles 330A, 332A, 239AA). It takes effect after the next Census and delimitation, and lasts 15 years. Related: Delimitation of Lok Sabha seats.

Source: The Hindu: women’s representation in 17th Lok Sabha at 14.4%

Q.79
APPSC Group 2 · 2024 · PrelimsIndian Society

APPSC Group 2 Prelims 2024 (25 Feb 2024), Q.79

English

Under the pressure of groups interested in linguistic regionalism, the President of the Constituent Assembly of India has appointed the Linguistic Provinces Commission to report on creation of provinces of Andhra, Karnataka, Kerala and Maharashtra. In which year was this Commission appointed and who was it chaired by?

  1. (1)1948, Justice Fazal Ali
  2. (2)1949, Pattabhi Sitaramayya
  3. (3)1950, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
  4. (4)1948, Justice S.K. Dhar
తెలుగు

భాషా ప్రాంతీయతపై ఆసక్తి ఉన్న సమూహాల ఒత్తిడితో, భారత రాజ్యాంగ సభ అధ్యక్షులు, ఆంధ్ర, కర్ణాటక, కేరళ మరియు మహారాష్ట్ర రాష్ట్రాల ఏర్పాటుపై నివేదిక ఇవ్వడానికి లింగ్విస్టిక్ ప్రావిన్సెస్ కమిషన్‌ను నియమించారు. ఈ కమిషన్‌ను ఏ సంవత్సరంలో నియమించారు మరియు దానికి ఎవరు అధ్యక్షత వహించారు ?

  1. (1)1948, జస్టిస్ ఫజల్ అలీ
  2. (2)1949, పట్టాభి సీతారామయ్య
  3. (3)1950, సర్దార్ వల్లభాయ్ పటేల్
  4. (4)1948, జస్టిస్ ఎస్.కె. ధార్
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (4) 1948, Justice S.K. Dhar

Why (4) is correct: In June 1948, Dr. Rajendra Prasad, President of the Constituent Assembly, appointed the Linguistic Provinces Commission under Justice S.K. Dhar (Dar). Its report (December 1948) preferred administrative convenience over language as the basis for reorganising States.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (1) Justice Fazal Ali headed the States Reorganisation Commission of 1953, not 1948.
  • (2) Pattabhi Sitaramayya was a member of the JVP Committee (Nehru, Patel, Pattabhi), set up by Congress in December 1948, which reported in 1949. He did not chair a commission.
  • (3) Patel was also only a JVP Committee member, and the year is wrong.

Concept: The sequence: Dhar Commission (1948) → JVP Committee (1948–49) → Potti Sriramulu’s fast and Andhra State (1 October 1953) → Fazal Ali SRC (1953–55) → States Reorganisation Act, 1956 (14 States, 6 UTs).

Source: Report of the Linguistic Provinces Commission, 1948 (S.K. Dar), Digital Library of India

Q.80
APPSC Group 2 · 2024 · PrelimsIndian Society

APPSC Group 2 Prelims 2024 (25 Feb 2024), Q.80

English

Consider the following statements about the Assam Movement:

I. The Assam Movement led by All Assam Students’ Union (AASU) was started in the year 1983.
II. The objective of the Assam Movement is to identify the migrant people, protect and provide constitutional, legislative and administrative safeguards to the Bangladeshi Migrants in Assam.
III. The Assam Movement was officially ended on 15th August, 1989 after coming to an understanding with the Government of India which found official expression in the Memorandum of Understanding popularly known as the Assam Accord.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

  1. (1)I and II only
  2. (2)II and III only
  3. (3)III only
  4. (4)None of the above
తెలుగు

అస్సాం ఉద్యమం గురించి ఈ క్రింది ప్రకటనలను పరిగణించండి

I. ఆల్ అస్సాం స్టూడెంట్స్ యూనియన్ (AASU) నేతృత్వంలో అస్సాం ఉద్యమం 1983 సంవత్సరంలో ప్రారంభమైంది.
II. అస్సాం ఉద్యమం యొక్క లక్ష్యం వలస ప్రజలను గుర్తించడం మరియు అస్సాంలోని బంగ్లాదేశ్ వలసదారులకు రాజ్యాంగ, శాసన మరియు పరిపాలనాపరమైన రక్షణలను అందించడం.
III. భారత ప్రభుత్వం ఉద్యమ నేతలతో ఒక అవగాహనకు వచ్చిన తర్వాత, అస్సాం అకార్డ్ గా ప్రసిద్ధి చెందిన అధికారిక అవగాహన ఒప్పందం కుదుర్చుకున్న తరువాత అస్సాం ఉద్యమం అధికారికంగా 15 ఆగస్ట్, 1989న ముగిసింది.

పైన ఇచ్చిన ప్రకటనలలో ఏది/ఏవి సరైనవి ?

  1. (1)I మరియు II మాత్రమే
  2. (2)II మరియు III మాత్రమే
  3. (3)III మాత్రమే
  4. (4)పైవేవీ కావు
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (4) None of the above

Why (4) is correct:

  • I is wrong. The movement began in 1979, not 1983.
  • II is wrong. Its aim was the opposite: to detect, delete from voter rolls and deport illegal foreigners, and to give safeguards to the Assamese people, not to migrants.
  • III is wrong. The Assam Accord was signed on 15 August 1985, not 1989.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (1), (2) and (3) each treat at least one wrong statement as correct.

Concept: Under the Assam Accord, those who came before 1 January 1966 were regularised. Those who came between 1966 and 24 March 1971 were to be detected and taken off the rolls for 10 years. Those who came on or after 25 March 1971 were to be detected and expelled. It led to Section 6A of the Citizenship Act (upheld in 2024), Clause 6 (safeguards for the Assamese people) and the NRC update. Related: Manipur NRC demand.

Source: Government of Assam: The Assam Accord

Q.81
APPSC Group 2 · 2024 · PrelimsIndian Society

APPSC Group 2 Prelims 2024 (25 Feb 2024), Q.81

English

Consider the following statements regarding the PM CARES for Children Scheme:

I. The PM CARES for Children Scheme was launched by the Prime Minister of India on 11th March, 2020 for children who have lost their parents due to COVID-19 pandemic.
II. The PM CARES for Children Scheme inter-alia provides support to children through convergent approach, gap funding for ensuring education, health, monthly stipend from the age of 14 years and the child receives a lump sum amount of ₹ 10 lakhs on attaining the age of 18 years.
III. The children who have lost their legal guardian, adoptive parents or single adoptive parent due to COVID-19 pandemic are also entitled to benefits under the scheme.

Which of the above given statements are incorrect?

  1. (1)I and II only
  2. (2)I and III only
  3. (3)II and III only
  4. (4)None of the above
తెలుగు

పిఎం కేర్స్ ఫర్ చిల్డ్రన్ పథకం గురించి ఈ క్రింది ప్రకటనలను పరిగణించండి :

I. కోవిడ్-19 మహమ్మారి కారణంగా తల్లిదండ్రులను కోల్పోయిన పిల్లల కోసం మార్చ్ 11, 2020న భారత ప్రధానమంత్రి పిఎం కేర్స్ ఫర్ చిల్డ్రన్ పథకాన్ని ప్రారంభించారు.
II. పిఎం కేర్స్ ఫర్ చిల్డ్రన్ పథకం ద్వారా పిల్లల సమగ్ర సంరక్షణ మరియు రక్షణను నిరంతరాయంగా అందించడమే కాకుండా, విద్య, ఆరోగ్యం, 14 సంవత్సరాల వయస్సు నుండి నెలవారీ స్టైఫండ్‌ని మరియు 18 సంవత్సరాలు నిండిన బిడ్డకు ఏక మొత్తంలో ₹ 10 లక్షలు అందుతుంది.
III. కోవిడ్-19 మహమ్మారి కారణంగా వారి చట్టపరమైన సంరక్షకుడు, దత్తత తీసుకున్న తల్లిదండ్రులు లేదా ఒంటరిగా దత్తత తీసుకున్న తల్లిదండ్రులను కోల్పోయిన పిల్లలు కూడా ఈ పథకం కింద ప్రయోజనాలకు అర్హులు.

పైన ఇచ్చిన ప్రకటనలలో ఏవి సరికానివి ?

  1. (1)I మరియు II మాత్రమే
  2. (2)I మరియు III మాత్రమే
  3. (3)II మరియు III మాత్రమే
  4. (4)పైవేవీ కావు
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (1) I and II only

Why (1) is correct: The question asks for the incorrect statements.

  • I is incorrect. The scheme was launched on 29 May 2021. 11 March 2020 is only the cut-off date: the day WHO declared COVID-19 a pandemic, from which parental deaths are counted.
  • II is incorrect. The monthly stipend starts at 18 years, not 14. The ₹10 lakh lump sum comes at 23 years, not 18. The corpus only reaches ₹10 lakh by age 18.
  • III is correct. Children who lost a legal guardian, adoptive parents or a single adoptive parent are eligible.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (2) and (3) list III as incorrect, but III is a correct statement.
  • (4) is wrong because I and II are both incorrect.

Concept: The Ministry of Women and Child Development runs the scheme. It provides:

  • ₹5 lakh health cover under Ayushman Bharat
  • a ₹20,000 per year scholarship for school children
  • interest support on education loans

Source: PIB: PM CARES for Children scheme guidelines

Q.82
APPSC Group 2 · 2024 · PrelimsIndian Society

APPSC Group 2 Prelims 2024 (25 Feb 2024), Q.82

English

According to whom ‘the existence of strong personal attachments and the fact of death, which of all human events is the most upsetting and disorganizing to man’s calculations, are perhaps the main sources of religious belief’?

  1. (1)Talcott Parsons
  2. (2)Emile Durkheim
  3. (3)Bronislaw Malinowski
  4. (4)Simone de Beauvoir
తెలుగు

‘బలమైన వ్యక్తిగత అనుబంధాల ఉనికి మరియు మరణం అనే వాస్తవం, మానవుని గణనకు అత్యంత కలత కలిగించే మరియు అస్తవ్యస్తంగా ఉన్న మానవ సంఘటనలు, బహుశా మత విశ్వాసానికి ప్రధాన వనరులు’ అని ఎవరు పేర్కొన్నారు ?

  1. (1)టాల్కాట్ పార్సన్స్
  2. (2)ఎమిల్ దర్కీమ్
  3. (3)బ్రోనిస్లావ్ మాలినోవ్స్కీ
  4. (4)సిమోన్ డి బ్యూవోయిర్
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (3) Bronislaw Malinowski

Why (3) is correct: This is Bronislaw Malinowski’s functionalist view, from Magic, Science and Religion. Religion arises from emotional crises, above all death, and helps people cope with anxiety and grief.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (2) Durkheim traced religion to society itself, the division of sacred and profane, and collective worship (The Elementary Forms of Religious Life, 1912), not to death.
  • (1) Talcott Parsons is a functionalist known for systems theory. This quote is not his.
  • (4) Simone de Beauvoir was a feminist philosopher (The Second Sex), not a theorist of religion.

Concept: Theories of religion:

  • Durkheim: social solidarity
  • Marx: “opium of the people”
  • Weber: Protestant ethic and capitalism
  • Malinowski: coping with crises such as death
  • Tylor: animism

Source: Malinowski, Magic, Science and Religion (1948)

Q.83
APPSC Group 2 · 2024 · PrelimsIndian Society

APPSC Group 2 Prelims 2024 (25 Feb 2024), Q.83

English

Which of the following Constitutional Amendments provided rights for making provisions in favour of the SCs and STs for relaxation of qualifying marks in any examination (or) lowering the standards of evaluation and for reservation in the matter of promotions to the public services of the Centre and the State?

  1. (1)80th Constitutional Amendment
  2. (2)82nd Constitutional Amendment
  3. (3)89th Constitutional Amendment
  4. (4)93rd Constitutional Amendment
తెలుగు

ఏదైనా పరీక్షలో అర్హత మార్కుల సడలింపు (లేదా) మూల్యాంకన ప్రమాణాన్ని తగ్గించడం మరియు కేంద్రం మరియు రాష్ట్ర ప్రభుత్వ సేవలకు ప్రమోషన్ విషయంలో రిజర్వేషన్ కోసం ఎస్సీ మరియు ఎస్టీలకు అనుకూలంగా నిబంధనలను రూపొందించడానికి క్రింది ఏ రాజ్యాంగ సవరణ హక్కును అందిస్తుంది ?

  1. (1)80వ రాజ్యాంగ సవరణ
  2. (2)82వ రాజ్యాంగ సవరణ
  3. (3)89వ రాజ్యాంగ సవరణ
  4. (4)93వ రాజ్యాంగ సవరణ
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (2) 82nd Constitutional Amendment

Why (2) is correct: The Constitution (82nd Amendment) Act, 2000 added a proviso to Article 335. It allows relaxed qualifying marks or lower evaluation standards for SCs and STs in promotion to Union and State services. It undid the effect of S. Vinod Kumar v. Union of India (1996).

Why the others are wrong:

  • (1) The 80th Amendment (2000) changed the sharing of Central taxes with States (Article 270), on the 10th Finance Commission’s advice.
  • (3) The 89th Amendment (2003) split the old Commission into a separate National Commission for STs (Article 338A).
  • (4) The 93rd Amendment (2005) added Article 15(5), which allows reservation in educational institutions, including private ones.

Concept: Promotion-reservation amendments:

  • 77th (1995): Article 16(4A), reservation in promotion
  • 81st (2000): Article 16(4B), carry-forward of unfilled vacancies
  • 82nd (2000): Article 335 proviso, relaxed standards
  • 85th (2001): consequential seniority

The Supreme Court upheld these in M. Nagaraj (2006), with conditions. Related: Creamy layer and SC/ST reservation.

Source: Legislative Department: Constitution (Eighty-second Amendment) Act, 2000

Q.84
APPSC Group 2 · 2024 · PrelimsIndian Society

APPSC Group 2 Prelims 2024 (25 Feb 2024), Q.84

English

Identify the country with which the Union Cabinet of India has approved signing of Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) for co-operation in disability sector that benefits the persons with disabilities (PwDs)?

  1. (1)South Africa
  2. (2)Germany
  3. (3)Japan
  4. (4)Brazil
తెలుగు

దివ్యాంగ జనులకు (పిడబ్ల్యుడిలు) ప్రయోజనం చేకూర్చేలా, సంబంధించిన రంగంలో సహకారం కోసం అవగాహన ఒప్పంద పత్రం (ఎంఒయు)పై సంతకం చేయడానికి భారత కేంద్ర మంత్రివర్గం ఆమోదించిన దేశాన్ని గుర్తించండి ?

  1. (1)దక్షిణాఫ్రికా
  2. (2)జర్మనీ
  3. (3)జపాన్
  4. (4)బ్రెజిల్
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (1) South Africa

Why (1) is correct: On 15 February 2023, the Union Cabinet approved an MoU between India and South Africa for cooperation in the disability sector. It focuses on modern, durable and low-cost aids and assistive devices for PwDs and the elderly.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (2) Germany, (3) Japan and (4) Brazil: no such Cabinet approval for a disability-sector MoU was reported for these countries in this context.

Concept: India’s earlier disability-sector partners: Australia (MoU 2018) and Chile (Cabinet approval April 2022). India ratified the UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities in 2007 and is part of the Incheon Strategy.

Source: The Hindu, 15 Feb 2023

Q.85
APPSC Group 2 · 2024 · PrelimsIndian Society

APPSC Group 2 Prelims 2024 (25 Feb 2024), Q.85

English

A consensual and informal relationship practised in accordance to matrilineal laws of Kerala that prevailed among Namboothiris and Nairs is known as:

  1. (1)Sambandham
  2. (2)Pakulam Pathiravum
  3. (3)Pranchiyettan
  4. (4)Udakapoorvam
తెలుగు

ఈ క్రింది వాటిలో కేరళలోని నంబూతిరి మరియు నాయర్‌ల మధ్య మాతృస్వామ్య చట్టాల ప్రకారం పరస్పరం అంగీకరించబడిన మరియు అనధికారిక సంబంధం ఏది ?

  1. (1)సంబంధం
  2. (2)పాకులం పతిరవుం
  3. (3)ప్రాంచియెట్టన్
  4. (4)ఉదకపూర్వం
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (1) Sambandham

Why (1) is correct: Sambandham was a loose, consensual union between Nair women and men, often younger Namboothiri sons. Only the eldest Namboothiri son married within his caste. Children belonged to the mother’s taravad (matrilineal joint family) and had no claim on the father’s property.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (2), (3) and (4) are not the recognised name for this Nair–Namboothiri relationship. (“Pranchiyettan” is better known as the title of a Malayalam film.)

Concept: Marumakkathayam was Kerala’s matrilineal system: descent and inheritance passed through the mother, and property went to a man’s sister’s children. It was ended by the Kerala Joint Hindu Family System (Abolition) Act, 1975. Other matrilineal groups in India: the Khasi and Garo of Meghalaya.

Source: “Change and continuity in Nayar social organization” (University of Montana thesis)

Q.86
APPSC Group 2 · 2024 · PrelimsIndian Society

APPSC Group 2 Prelims 2024 (25 Feb 2024), Q.86

English

Recently the Delhi High Court has upheld the constitutional validity of a provision of the Hindu Marriage Act which ‘prohibits marriage between people who are related to each other through ancestors from their parent’s side unless their customs allow them to do so’. The said provision was mentioned in which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act?

  1. (1)Section 4(a)
  2. (2)Section 5(v)
  3. (3)Section 12(1)(a)
  4. (4)Section 13(ii)
తెలుగు

ఇటీవల కాలంలో ఢిల్లీ హైకోర్టు హిందూ వివాహ చట్టం యొక్క రాజ్యాంగ చెల్లుబాటును సమర్థించింది. హిందూ వివాహ చట్టంలోని నిబంధన ప్రకారం ‘తల్లిదండ్రుల వైపు నుండి పూర్వీకుల ద్వారా ఒకరికొకరు సంబంధం ఉన్న వ్యక్తుల మధ్య వారి ఆచారాలు అనుమతిస్తే తప్ప వివాహాన్ని నిషేధిస్తుంది’. హిందూ వివాహ చట్టంలోని ఏ సెక్షన్‌లో ఈ నిబంధన ప్రస్తావించబడింది ?

  1. (1)సెక్షన్ 4(a)
  2. (2)సెక్షన్ 5(v)
  3. (3)సెక్షన్ 12(1)(a)
  4. (4)సెక్షన్ 13(ii)
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (2) Section 5(v)

Why (2) is correct: Section 5(v) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 bars marriage between sapindas (people related through common ancestors on the parents’ side) unless a valid custom allows it. In Neetu Grover v. Union of India (22 January 2024), the Delhi High Court upheld it. The court said that if the choice of partner were left unregulated, “incestuous relationship may gain legitimacy”.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (1) Section 4 gives the Act overriding effect over earlier Hindu law and custom. It does not deal with sapindas.
  • (3) Section 12(1)(a) makes a marriage voidable for impotence (non-consummation).
  • (4) Section 13 lists the grounds for divorce. Clause (ii) is conversion to another religion.

Concept: Section 5 sets the conditions for a valid Hindu marriage:

  • (i) monogamy
  • (ii) mental capacity
  • (iii) age 21 for the groom and 18 for the bride
  • (iv) not within prohibited degrees
  • (v) not sapindas

Breaking (i), (iv) or (v) makes the marriage void under Section 11. Under Section 3(f), sapinda relationship extends 3 generations on the mother’s side and 5 on the father’s.

Source: Indian Express, 25 Jan 2024

Q.87
APPSC Group 2 · 2024 · PrelimsIndian Society

APPSC Group 2 Prelims 2024 (25 Feb 2024), Q.87

English

A Centrally sponsored scheme that aims to achieve the objectives of child protection, happy childhood and development under the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) is:

  1. (1)Mission Laalana
  2. (2)Mission Bala Vihar
  3. (3)Mission Balsamrudhi
  4. (4)Mission Vatsalya
తెలుగు

సుస్థిర అభివృద్ధి లక్ష్యాల (SDG లు) కింద పిల్లల రక్షణ, సంతోషకరమైన బాల్యం మరియు అభివృద్ధి లక్ష్యాలను సాధించడం లక్ష్యంగా పెట్టుకున్న కేంద్ర ప్రాయోజిత పథకం :

  1. (1)మిషన్ లాలనా
  2. (2)మిషన్ బాల విహార్
  3. (3)మిషన్ బాలసమృద్ధి
  4. (4)మిషన్ వాత్సల్య
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (4) Mission Vatsalya

Why (4) is correct: Mission Vatsalya is a centrally sponsored scheme of the Ministry of Women and Child Development. It aims to secure a healthy and happy childhood for every child, and its child-protection goals are aligned with the SDGs. It is implemented through States and UTs under the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (1), (2) and (3) are not central child-protection schemes. They are not the scheme the question describes.

Concept: Mission Vatsalya took over the earlier Child Protection Services (ICPS) scheme. It covers

  • Child Care Institutions
  • foster care and sponsorship
  • Childline 1098
  • District Child Protection Units
  • Child Welfare Committees
  • Juvenile Justice Boards

It sits alongside Mission Shakti (women) and Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0.

Source: PIB: Mission Vatsalya

Q.88
APPSC Group 2 · 2024 · PrelimsIndian Society

APPSC Group 2 Prelims 2024 (25 Feb 2024), Q.88

English

Which of the following was the custom practised during the ancient period that allows married women to cohabit with a designated male for the sole purpose of procreating a child if her husband was impotent or had died?

  1. (1)Apastamba
  2. (2)Sikata Nivavari
  3. (3)Pratigya
  4. (4)Niyoga
తెలుగు

పురాతన కాలంలో భర్తలో సంతానలేమి సమస్య లేదా భర్త చనిపోయి ఉంటే అటువంటి వివాహిత స్త్రీలు మరియు వితంతువులు, సంతానం పొందాలనే ఏకైక ఉద్దేశ్యంతో నియమించబడిన పురుషుడితో సహజీవనం చేయడానికి అనుమతించే ఆచారం ఏది ?

  1. (1)ఆపస్తంబ
  2. (2)సికట నివావారి
  3. (3)ప్రతిజ్ఞ
  4. (4)నియోగ
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (4) Niyoga

Why (4) is correct: Niyoga was an ancient custom in which a wife or widow, with the elders’ sanction, could have a son by an appointed man, usually the husband’s brother or a close kinsman, when the husband was impotent or dead. The child was treated as the husband’s son. Dharmashastras such as Manu discuss it.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (1) Apastamba is the author of a Dharmasutra, not a custom. He actually rejected niyoga.
  • (2) and (3) are not this custom. Pratigya means a vow or pledge.

Concept: Ancient marriage-related customs:

  • Levirate: marrying the dead husband’s brother. Niyoga is close to it but limited to having a child.
  • Sororate: marrying the dead wife’s sister.
  • The eight forms of Hindu marriage, from Brahma to Paishacha.
  • Anuloma and pratiloma marriages.

Source: Oxford Academic: “Widow Remarriage and Niyoga”, Widows Under Hindu Law

Q.89
APPSC Group 2 · 2024 · PrelimsIndian Society

APPSC Group 2 Prelims 2024 (25 Feb 2024), Q.89

English

As per Article 164(1) of the Constitution of India, a minister in charge of tribal welfare who may in addition be in charge of the Scheduled Castes and backward classes is compulsory for which of the following states?

I. Madhya Pradesh
II. Punjab
III. Uttar Pradesh
IV. Jharkhand
V. Odisha

  1. (1)I, II and IV only
  2. (2)II, III and IV only
  3. (3)I, IV and V only
  4. (4)II, III and V only
తెలుగు

భారత రాజ్యాంగంలోని ఆర్టికల్ 164(1) ప్రకారం, షెడ్యూల్డ్ కులాలు మరియు వెనుకబడిన తరగతులకు అదనంగా బాధ్యత వహించే గిరిజన సంక్షేమ శాఖ మంత్రి కింది ఏ రాష్ట్రానికి తప్పనిసరి ?

I. మధ్య ప్రదేశ్
II. పంజాబ్
III. ఉత్తర ప్రదేశ్
IV. జార్ఖండ్
V. ఒడిశా

  1. (1)I, II మరియు IV మాత్రమే
  2. (2)II, III మరియు IV మాత్రమే
  3. (3)I, IV మరియు V మాత్రమే
  4. (4)II, III మరియు V మాత్రమే
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (3) I, IV and V only

Why (3) is correct: The proviso to Article 164(1) requires a Minister for tribal welfare in Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha. From the list, that means Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand and Odisha, which is I, IV and V.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (1) and (2) include Punjab and/or Uttar Pradesh, which are not in the proviso.
  • (4) includes Punjab and Uttar Pradesh and leaves out Madhya Pradesh and Jharkhand.

Concept: Originally the list was Bihar, MP and Odisha. The 94th Amendment (2006) removed Bihar and added Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand after those States were created in 2000. The 91st Amendment (2003) capped the council of ministers at 15% of the Assembly, with a minimum of 12.

Source: Constitution of India: Article 164

Q.90
APPSC Group 2 · 2024 · PrelimsIndian Society

APPSC Group 2 Prelims 2024 (25 Feb 2024), Q.90

English

The comment ‘Devotion cannot be subjected to gender discrimination’ was made by the Apex Court in its judgement in the Sabarimala Case and permitted women of all age groups into the Sabarimala temple. Who among the following middle aged women first entered the Sabarimala temple after the Supreme Court judgement?

  1. (1)Bindu Ammini and Jyothi Nair
  2. (2)Kanaka Durga and Aadhishree
  3. (3)Bindu Ammini and Kanaka Durga
  4. (4)Kanaka Durga and Aishwarya Melton
తెలుగు

‘భక్తి లింగ వివక్షకు గురికాకూడదు’ అని శబరిమల కేసులో సుప్రీం కోర్టు తన తీర్పులో వ్యాఖ్యానించి అన్ని వయస్సుల గల మహిళలను శబరిమల ఆలయంలోకి అనుమతించింది. సుప్రీంకోర్టు తీర్పు తర్వాత శబరిమల ఆలయంలోకి మొదటగా ప్రవేశించిన మధ్య వయస్కులైన స్త్రీలు ఎవరు ?

  1. (1)బిందు అమ్మిని మరియు జ్యోతి నాయర్
  2. (2)కనక దుర్గ మరియు ఆధిశ్రీ
  3. (3)బిందు అమ్మిని మరియు కనక దుర్గ
  4. (4)కనక దుర్గ మరియు ఐశ్వర్య మెల్టన్
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (3) Bindu Ammini and Kanaka Durga

Why (3) is correct: On 2 January 2019, Bindu Ammini (a lawyer and lecturer) and Kanaka Durga (a government employee) became the first women of the earlier barred age group to enter Sabarimala after the verdict.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (1), (2) and (4) each pair one or both of them with a name not linked to the first entry.

Concept: In Indian Young Lawyers Association v. State of Kerala (28 September 2018, 4:1), the Supreme Court struck down the ban on women aged 10–50. Justice Indu Malhotra dissented. The Court relied on Articles 14, 15, 17 and 25. Review petitions led to a 9-judge bench reference on essential religious practices (2019).

Source: Supreme Court Observer: Sabarimala judgment summary