National Current Affairs Archives

Ramanujan Prize 2026: Mahesh Kakde Wins – Important Prelims Facts

The Ramanujan Prize 2026 has gone to Mahesh Kakde, a professor at the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru, for his work in algebraic number theory. He is the fifth Indian to win it. This note covers the prize, Kakde’s work, other mathematics awards and the traps examiners use.

Why in News?

Indian mathematician Mahesh Kakde received the Ramanujan Prize 2026 for Young Mathematicians from Developing Countries. The citation recognises his fundamental work in algebraic number theory, especially Iwasawa theory.

Key Facts for Prelims: Ramanujan Prize 2026

Winner: Mahesh Kakde, Professor of Mathematics, IISc Bengaluru
Field: Algebraic number theory, mainly noncommutative Iwasawa theory
Notable results: Work on the Brumer–Stark and Gross–Stark conjectures, which has implications for Hilbert’s 12th problem
Earlier honours: Infosys Prize in Mathematical Sciences (2022) and invited speaker at the International Congress of Mathematicians
Indian winners of this prize: Sujatha Ramdorai (2006), Amalendu Krishna (2015), Ritabrata Munshi (2018), Neena Gupta (2021) and Mahesh Kakde (2026)

What Is Algebraic Number Theory?

Number theory studies whole numbers and their properties, such as primes and divisibility. Algebraic number theory goes further. It looks for hidden structures that explain why numbers behave the way they do.

Iwasawa theory studies how these patterns change when number systems are extended step by step into larger, more complex systems. Kakde’s results helped explain such changes even where the systems do not behave in a simple, predictable way.

About the Ramanujan Prize

Full name: Ramanujan Prize for Young Mathematicians from Developing Countries
Awarded by: The International Centre for Theoretical Physics (ICTP), with the International Mathematical Union (IMU) and India’s Department of Science and Technology (DST), which funds it
Eligibility: Researchers from developing countries who are under 45 years of age
Started: First awarded in 2005
Purpose: To recognise outstanding research carried out in a developing country

Static Link: Srinivasa Ramanujan and Maths Institutions

Srinivasa Ramanujan was born on 22 December 1887 in Erode, Tamil Nadu. He worked on number theory, infinite series, partitions and mock theta functions.
He was elected a Fellow of the Royal Society (1918) and was a Fellow of Trinity College, Cambridge.
1729 is known as the Hardy–Ramanujan number. It is the smallest number that can be written as the sum of two cubes in two different ways.
National Mathematics Day is observed on 22 December, his birth anniversary. It was declared in 2011, and 2012 was observed as National Mathematical Year.
ICTP is in Trieste, Italy. It was founded in 1964 by Nobel laureate Abdus Salam and works under UNESCO and the IAEA.
IMU awards the Fields Medal and the Leelavati Prize (for public outreach in mathematics). The Leelavati Prize was instituted when the International Congress of Mathematicians was held in Hyderabad in 2010.

Major Mathematics Awards Compared

Award	Given By	Age / Eligibility
ICTP Ramanujan Prize	ICTP, IMU, DST	Under 45, from developing countries
SASTRA Ramanujan Prize	SASTRA University	32 years or below, any nationality
Fields Medal	IMU (every 4 years)	Under 40
Abel Prize	Norwegian Academy of Science and Letters	No age limit
Vigyan Yuva–Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award	Government of India (Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar)	Up to 45 years

Quick Revision Table: Ramanujan Prize 2026

Parameter	Fact
Prize	Ramanujan Prize for Young Mathematicians from Developing Countries
Ramanujan Prize 2026 winner	Mahesh Kakde (IISc Bengaluru)
Area of work	Algebraic number theory (Iwasawa theory)
Awarding bodies	ICTP and IMU, funded by DST
Age limit	Under 45
Kakde’s position among Indian winners	Fifth
First Indian winner	Sujatha Ramdorai
National Mathematics Day	22 December

Trap / Confusing Points on Ramanujan Prize 2026

Common Confusion	Correct Position
The ICTP Ramanujan Prize and the SASTRA Ramanujan Prize are the same	No. ICTP’s prize is for mathematicians under 45 from developing countries. SASTRA’s is for those aged 32 or below, of any nationality.
The Abel Prize is given by the IMU	No. The Norwegian Academy of Science and Letters gives the Abel Prize. The IMU gives the Fields Medal.
Kakde is the first Indian to win the Ramanujan Prize	No. He is the fifth. Sujatha Ramdorai was the first.
ICTP is an Indian institution	No. It is in Trieste, Italy. India’s DST only funds the prize.
National Mathematics Day is on 28 February	No. 28 February is National Science Day (Raman Effect). Mathematics Day is on 22 December.

Practice MCQs on Ramanujan Prize 2026

1. The Ramanujan Prize for Young Mathematicians from Developing Countries is awarded by:
a. SASTRA University
b. ICTP with the IMU, funded by DST
c. Indian National Science Academy
d. Royal Society, London
Ans: B
Explanation: ICTP awards it with the International Mathematical Union. India’s Department of Science and Technology funds it.

2. What is the age limit for the ICTP Ramanujan Prize?
a. Under 32
b. Under 40
c. Under 45
d. No age limit
Ans: C
Explanation: It is for researchers under 45 from developing countries. The SASTRA prize limit is 32 and the Fields Medal limit is 40.

3. The Ramanujan Prize 2026 winner Mahesh Kakde works mainly in:
a. Algebraic number theory
b. Topology
c. Fluid dynamics
d. Combinatorics
Ans: A
Explanation: He was recognised for work in algebraic number theory, especially noncommutative Iwasawa theory.

4. Who was the first Indian to win the ICTP Ramanujan Prize?
a. Neena Gupta
b. Sujatha Ramdorai
c. Ritabrata Munshi
d. Amalendu Krishna
Ans: B
Explanation: Sujatha Ramdorai won it in 2006 for work including Iwasawa theory. Kakde is the fifth Indian winner.

5. National Mathematics Day in India is observed on:
a. 28 February
b. 22 December
c. 11 May
d. 14 March
Ans: B
Explanation: 22 December is Ramanujan’s birth anniversary. 28 February is National Science Day and 11 May is National Technology Day.

Exam tip: Award questions usually test the awarding body, the age limit and the “first Indian” fact. Revise the Ramanujan Prize 2026 together with the comparison table above.

To learn current affairs from exam point of view, Click here.

To know more about the Ramanujan Prize 2026 awarded to Mahesh Kakde, Click here.

Ramanujan Prize 2026: Mahesh Kakde Wins – Important Prelims Facts Read More »

Paschim Banga: West Bengal Renaming and Article 3 – 5 Important Facts

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, National Current Affairs, Polity Current Affairs / PSCchronicles team

Paschim Banga may soon become the official name of West Bengal. The state government plans to bring the renaming proposal to the Assembly in its next session. This note covers the Article 3 procedure for renaming a state, earlier West Bengal proposals, and the traps examiners set on this topic.

Why in News?

West Bengal BJP president Samik Bhattacharya announced that the state government will soon table a Bill in the Legislative Assembly to rename West Bengal as Paschim Banga. He linked the new name to the state’s history and identity.

For prelims, the real issue is who has the power to rename a state. Under the Constitution, a state cannot change its own name. Only Parliament can do it, by law under Article 3.

Key Facts for Prelims: Paschim Banga Proposal

Proposed name: Paschim Banga (the Bengali form of “West Bengal”)
Who announced it: The state BJP president, on behalf of the state government
Earlier proposals: “Paschim Banga” (2011); three names, Bangla, Bengal and Bangal (2016); and a single name, “Bangla”, through a unanimous Assembly resolution (2018)
Outcome so far: The Centre approved none of the earlier proposals. One concern raised was the similarity of “Bangla” to Bangladesh.
Reason usually given: In the alphabetical list, “West Bengal” comes last among states, so its turn comes last at inter-state meetings

Paschim Banga and Article 3: How a State Is Renamed

Under Article 3, Parliament may by law:

form a new state by separating territory or uniting states
increase or diminish the area of a state
alter the boundaries of a state
alter the name of a state

Step-by-step procedure:

State resolution: The process usually starts with a resolution of the State Legislative Assembly, sent to the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
Consultation: MHA consults agencies such as the Intelligence Bureau, Railways, Department of Posts and Survey of India.
President’s recommendation: A Bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament only on the prior recommendation of the President.
Reference to the state: Before recommending it, the President refers the Bill to the State Legislature for its views within a specified period.
Views not binding: Parliament can go ahead even if the state disagrees or does not reply in time.
Passage: Both Houses pass the Bill by a simple majority and it becomes law with the President’s assent.

Static Link: Article 4 and the Schedules

Article 4 says laws made under Articles 2 and 3 may amend the First Schedule (names and territories of states) and the Fourth Schedule (Rajya Sabha seats).
Such laws are not deemed to be amendments under Article 368. So a simple majority is enough, not a special majority.
Babulal Parate case (1960): The Supreme Court held that if Parliament amends the Bill, it need not be referred to the state again.
For Union Territories, there is no requirement to refer the Bill to any legislature.
Renaming a city or village does not need a Parliament law. The state government does it by executive order after MHA’s no-objection.

Past Renaming of States and UTs

Old Name	New Name	Year
Madras State	Tamil Nadu	1969
Mysore	Karnataka	1973
Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindivi Islands	Lakshadweep	1973
Pondicherry	Puducherry	2006
Uttaranchal	Uttarakhand	2007
Orissa	Odisha	2011

Note: The Orissa-to-Odisha change also needed the 96th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011, because the language name “Oriya” in the Eighth Schedule was changed to “Odia”. Changing a language name in the Eighth Schedule needs an Article 368 amendment.

Quick Revision Table: Paschim Banga and Renaming of States

Parameter	Fact
Proposed new name	Paschim Banga
Power to rename a state	Parliament, by law (Article 3)
Bill introduced on	Prior recommendation of the President
Role of State Legislature	Gives views; not binding
Majority required	Simple majority
Amendment under Article 368?	No (Article 4(2))
Schedule amended	First Schedule (Fourth Schedule if Rajya Sabha seats change)
Earlier single name proposed by the Assembly	Bangla
Most recent state renamed	Orissa to Odisha

Trap / Confusing Points

Common Confusion	Correct Position
A State Assembly can rename the state by passing its own Bill	No. Only Parliament can, under Article 3. The Assembly can only recommend or give its views.
Renaming a state needs a special majority under Article 368	No. Article 4(2) says it is not an amendment under Article 368, so a simple majority is enough.
The state’s views bind the President and Parliament	No. The views are only advisory.
The Bill can be introduced without the President’s recommendation	No. Prior recommendation of the President is mandatory.
Renaming a city also needs an Act of Parliament	No. It is an executive decision of the state with MHA’s no-objection.
Article 2 and Article 3 mean the same thing	No. Article 2 is for admitting new states from outside India (e.g., Sikkim). Article 3 is for reorganising existing states.

Practice MCQs on Paschim Banga and Article 3

1. Under which Article of the Constitution can Parliament alter the name of a State?
a. Article 2
b. Article 3
c. Article 4
d. Article 368
Ans: B
Explanation: Article 3 lets Parliament form new states and alter the areas, boundaries or names of existing states. Article 2 deals with admitting new states into the Union.

2. A Bill to change the name of a State can be introduced in Parliament only:
a. After a two-thirds resolution of the State Assembly
b. On the recommendation of the President
c. With the consent of the Governor
d. After approval of the Inter-State Council
Ans: B
Explanation: Article 3 requires the prior recommendation of the President. The President first refers the Bill to the State Legislature for its views.

3. A law under Article 3 renaming a State is passed by:
a. Special majority under Article 368
b. Special majority plus ratification by half the states
c. Simple majority of both Houses
d. A joint sitting only
Ans: C
Explanation: Article 4(2) says such laws are not constitutional amendments under Article 368. So a simple majority is enough.

4. Which renaming also needed a constitutional amendment to change a language name in the Eighth Schedule?
a. Madras to Tamil Nadu
b. Mysore to Karnataka
c. Orissa to Odisha
d. Uttaranchal to Uttarakhand
Ans: C
Explanation: The 96th Amendment Act, 2011 replaced “Oriya” with “Odia” in the Eighth Schedule.

5. The views of a State Legislature on a renaming Bill referred under Article 3 are:
a. Binding on Parliament
b. Binding on the President only
c. Not binding; Parliament may proceed
d. Needed only when the area is increased
Ans: C
Explanation: The state must be consulted, but its views are advisory. Parliament may pass the law even if the state objects.

Exam tip: Revise Articles 2, 3 and 4 and the First Schedule together. Prelims questions on the Paschim Banga proposal will test the procedure, not the announcement.

To learn current affairs from exam point of view, Click here.

To know more about the West Bengal renaming proposal, Click here.

Paschim Banga: West Bengal Renaming and Article 3 – 5 Important Facts Read More »

Manipur NRC Demand: Assembly Resolution with 1961 Base Year – UPSC Notes

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, National Current Affairs, Polity Current Affairs / PSCchronicles team

The Manipur NRC demand has resurfaced with the state Assembly passing its third resolution asking the Centre to implement and update the National Register of Citizens in Manipur with 1961 as the base year. This note explains the Manipur NRC issue and the NRC–NPR distinction for prelims.

Why in News?

The Manipur Assembly adopted a resolution urging the Centre to implement the NRC with 1961 as the base year and to prioritise it before the national Census.

1961 is the cut-off year Manipur already uses to identify native residents under its Inner Line Permit (ILP) regime.

Manipur NRC: Key Facts for Prelims

NRC = official register of legal Indian citizens, meant to identify and remove illegal immigrants.
First nationwide NRC was prepared after the 1951 Census; it was never updated at the national level.
Assam is the only state that updated its NRC – final list published in 2019 under Supreme Court supervision, using 24 March 1971 as the cut-off (Assam Accord, 1985).
Legal basis: Section 14A of the Citizenship Act, 1955 (inserted 2004) and the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and Issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003.
Manipur got the Inner Line Permit system in December 2019 under the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation, 1873 (like Arunachal, Nagaland, Mizoram).

NPR vs NRC (interconnected concept)

NPR (National Population Register) records every usual resident who has lived in an area for six months or more or intends to – including foreign nationals.
NRC records only Indian citizens.
NPR is prepared under the 2003 Rules through the house-listing phase of the Census; it is the first step envisaged towards a national NRC.
Census is conducted under the Census Act, 1948; the Registrar General and Census Commissioner (MHA) handles both Census and NPR.

Quick Revision Table: Manipur NRC

Point	Detail
Demand	Update NRC in Manipur, base year 1961
Resolution count	Third such Assembly resolution
Sequence sought	NRC before Census
Only state with updated NRC	Assam (2019, cut-off 24 March 1971)
Legal basis	Section 14A, Citizenship Act 1955 + 2003 Rules
NPR covers	All usual residents incl. foreigners
NRC covers	Only Indian citizens

Trap / Confusing Points: Manipur NRC

Confusion	Correct Position
NRC has been prepared for all of India recently	No – only 1951 nationwide; Assam updated in 2019
Assam’s NRC cut-off is 1961	No – 24 March 1971; 1961 is Manipur’s ILP base year
NPR and NRC are the same	NPR lists usual residents; NRC lists citizens
Manipur has no Inner Line Permit	ILP extended to Manipur in December 2019

5 Practice MCQs on Manipur NRC

1. The first National Register of Citizens in India was prepared after which Census?
a. 1941
b. 1951
c. 1961
d. 1971
Ans: B
Explanation: The 1951 NRC was the only nationwide register ever prepared.

2. Which state has updated its NRC under Supreme Court supervision?
a. Manipur
b. Tripura
c. Assam
d. Nagaland
Ans: C
Explanation: Assam’s final NRC was published in August 2019.

3. The cut-off date for citizenship under the Assam Accord is:
a. 15 August 1947
b. 1 January 1966
c. 24 March 1971
d. 25 March 1971
Ans: C
Explanation: Persons entering Assam after 24 March 1971 are treated as illegal migrants.

4. The National Population Register includes:
a. Only Indian citizens
b. Only voters
c. All usual residents including foreigners
d. Only persons with Aadhaar
Ans: C
Explanation: NPR records usual residents irrespective of citizenship.

5. The Inner Line Permit system draws its authority from:
a. Citizenship Act, 1955
b. Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation, 1873
c. Foreigners Act, 1946
d. Sixth Schedule of the Constitution
Ans: B
Explanation: ILP is issued under the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation, 1873.

Exam tip: Revise Manipur NRC together with the static links above; UPSC and APPSC prelims often frame questions from these interconnections.

To learn current affairs from exam point of view, Click here.

To know more about the Manipur NRC resolution, Click here.

Manipur NRC Demand: Assembly Resolution with 1961 Base Year – UPSC Notes Read More »

PM Jan Dhan Yojana Completes 12 Years: 6 Key Facts for UPSC Prelims

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, Indian Economy Current Affairs, National Current Affairs / PSCchronicles team

PM Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY), launched on 28 August 2014, has completed 12 years of transforming financial inclusion in India. This note lists the PM Jan Dhan Yojana features and linked schemes that prelims papers repeatedly test.

Why in News?

PMJDY marked 12 years with over 59 crore accounts and deposits above Rs 3 lakh crore; roughly two-thirds of accounts are in rural/semi-urban areas and more than half belong to women.

PM Jan Dhan Yojana: Key Facts for Prelims

National Mission for Financial Inclusion under the Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance.
Zero-balance Basic Savings Bank Deposit (BSBD) account – no minimum balance requirement.
Free RuPay debit card with accident insurance cover of Rs 2 lakh (Rs 1 lakh for accounts opened before 28 August 2018).
Overdraft facility up to Rs 10,000 (raised from Rs 5,000 in 2018); age limit for OD raised to 18–65 years.
Phase 2 (from 2018) shifted focus from ‘every household’ to ‘every unbanked adult’.
Backbone of the JAM trinity (Jan Dhan–Aadhaar–Mobile) enabling Direct Benefit Transfer.

Linked social security schemes (launched 2015)

PM Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana – life cover Rs 2 lakh, premium Rs 436/year, age 18–50.
PM Suraksha Bima Yojana – accident cover Rs 2 lakh, premium Rs 20/year, age 18–70.
Atal Pension Yojana – guaranteed pension Rs 1,000–5,000 per month after 60, for 18–40 age group (regulated by PFRDA).
Earlier financial-inclusion steps: Lead Bank Scheme (1969), RRBs (1975), Swabhimaan (2011), Business Correspondent model (2006), RBI’s BSBD account (2012).

Quick Revision Table: PM Jan Dhan Yojana

Point	Detail
Launch	28 August 2014
Nodal	Department of Financial Services, MoF
Account type	Zero-balance BSBD account
Card	RuPay debit card
Accident cover	Rs 2 lakh (Rs 1 lakh pre-2018 accounts)
Overdraft	Up to Rs 10,000
Linked trinity	JAM – Jan Dhan, Aadhaar, Mobile

Trap / Confusing Points: PM Jan Dhan Yojana

Confusion	Correct Position
PMJDY gives a life insurance cover	No – accident cover via RuPay card; life cover is PMJJBY
Overdraft limit is Rs 5,000	Raised to Rs 10,000 in 2018
PMJDY accounts require Aadhaar mandatorily	No – any officially valid document; Aadhaar seeding is encouraged for DBT
PMJDY is run by RBI	No – Ministry of Finance (DFS); RBI is the regulator

5 Practice MCQs on PM Jan Dhan Yojana

1. PM Jan Dhan Yojana was launched on:
a. 15 August 2014
b. 28 August 2014
c. 2 October 2014
d. 1 January 2015
Ans: B
Explanation: Announced on 15 August 2014 and launched on 28 August 2014.

2. The accident insurance cover linked to the RuPay card under PMJDY for accounts opened after 28 August 2018 is:
a. Rs 30,000
b. Rs 1 lakh
c. Rs 2 lakh
d. Rs 5 lakh
Ans: C
Explanation: Cover was doubled from Rs 1 lakh to Rs 2 lakh for new accounts in 2018.

3. Which of the following schemes provides a guaranteed pension and is regulated by PFRDA?
a. PMJJBY
b. PMSBY
c. Atal Pension Yojana
d. PM-SYM
Ans: C
Explanation: Atal Pension Yojana (2015) guarantees Rs 1,000–5,000 monthly pension after age 60.

4. The ‘JAM trinity’ refers to:
a. Jan Dhan, Aadhaar, Mobile
b. Jal, Anna, Makan
c. Jobs, Agriculture, Manufacturing
d. Jan Dhan, Ayushman, MUDRA
Ans: A
Explanation: JAM links bank accounts, Aadhaar and mobiles for leak-proof DBT.

5. PMJDY accounts are classified as:
a. Current accounts
b. Basic Savings Bank Deposit accounts
c. Recurring deposit accounts
d. Small savings accounts
Ans: B
Explanation: They are zero-balance BSBD accounts as defined by RBI.

Exam tip: Revise PM Jan Dhan Yojana together with the static links above; UPSC and APPSC prelims often frame questions from these interconnections.

To learn current affairs from exam point of view, Click here.

To know more about 12 years of PMJDY, Click here.

PM Jan Dhan Yojana Completes 12 Years: 6 Key Facts for UPSC Prelims Read More »

Indian Standard Time Rules 2026: IST Mandatory, NavIC, 82.5°E – 8 Prelims Facts

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, National Current Affairs, Science and Technology Current Affairs / PSCchronicles team

The Indian Standard Time Rules 2026 – formally the Legal Metrology (Indian Standard Time) Rules, 2026 – make IST the single mandatory time reference for all legal, commercial and official purposes in India. This note covers the Indian Standard Time Rules 2026 with the static geography and NavIC links examiners test.

Why in News?

The Centre notified the Legal Metrology (Indian Standard Time) Rules, 2026 under the Legal Metrology Act, 2009, with a 180-day compliance window.

The Rules mandate IST for all legal, administrative, commercial and official purposes and provide for time dissemination through NavIC and other approved Indian timing sources.

Indian Standard Time Rules 2026: Key Facts for Prelims

Part of the ‘One Nation, One Time’ initiative of the Department of Consumer Affairs with CSIR-NPL and ISRO.
Display of any time other than IST for official/commercial purposes is barred, except for astronomy, navigation, scientific research and similar notified purposes.
A White Rabbit technology-based IST Dissemination Demonstration Network was commissioned at the Regional Reference Standard Laboratory (RRSL) to serve banking, telecom, power, transport and digital governance.
Aim: secure, traceable time for cyber-security, financial transactions, 5G networks and the power grid, reducing dependence on foreign GPS time.

Indian Standard Time – static points

IST = UTC + 5:30; based on the 82°30′E (82.5°E) meridian.
The standard meridian passes near Mirzapur (Uttar Pradesh) and runs through five states: Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.
Custodian: CSIR-National Physical Laboratory (NPL), New Delhi, using caesium atomic clocks.
India spans about 30° of longitude (68°7′E to 97°25′E) – roughly a two-hour difference between Gujarat and Arunachal Pradesh, which fuels the demand for a separate north-east time zone.

NavIC – static points

Navigation with Indian Constellation, developed by ISRO; formerly IRNSS.
Regional system covering India and up to 1,500 km beyond its borders.
Constellation of 7 satellites: 3 in Geostationary Orbit (GEO) and 4 in Inclined Geosynchronous Orbit (IGSO).
Services: Standard Positioning Service (civil) and Restricted Service (strategic); second-generation NVS series satellites carry an indigenous Rubidium atomic clock and L1 band.

Quick Revision Table: Indian Standard Time Rules 2026

Point	Detail
Rules	Legal Metrology (Indian Standard Time) Rules, 2026
Parent Act	Legal Metrology Act, 2009
Compliance window	180 days
Initiative	One Nation, One Time
IST offset / meridian	UTC+5:30 / 82.5°E
Time custodian	CSIR-NPL, New Delhi
NavIC constellation	7 satellites (3 GEO + 4 IGSO)

Trap / Confusing Points: Indian Standard Time Rules 2026

Confusion	Correct Position
IST is maintained by ISRO	No – CSIR-NPL keeps IST; ISRO’s NavIC disseminates it
Standard meridian passes through Allahabad city	It passes near Mirzapur (close to Prayagraj), not through Prayagraj city
Standard meridian passes through Telangana	No – UP, MP, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh
NavIC is a global system like GPS	No – regional, India + 1,500 km

5 Practice MCQs on Indian Standard Time Rules 2026

1. The Indian Standard Time Rules 2026 have been notified under which Act?
a. Standards of Weights and Measures Act, 1976
b. Legal Metrology Act, 2009
c. Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 2016
d. Consumer Protection Act, 2019
Ans: B
Explanation: The Rules are framed under the Legal Metrology Act, 2009 by the Department of Consumer Affairs.

2. The Standard Meridian of India passes through which of the following states?
a. Telangana
b. Bihar
c. Odisha
d. Jharkhand
Ans: C
Explanation: 82.5°E passes through UP, MP, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.

3. Which institution is the custodian of Indian Standard Time?
a. ISRO
b. CSIR-NPL
c. Survey of India
d. IMD
Ans: B
Explanation: CSIR-National Physical Laboratory, New Delhi maintains IST with atomic clocks.

4. How many satellites form the NavIC constellation?
a. 4
b. 7
c. 11
d. 24
Ans: B
Explanation: Seven satellites – three GEO and four IGSO.

5. ‘White Rabbit’ technology mentioned in the news relates to:
a. Quantum computing
b. Sub-nanosecond time synchronisation over networks
c. Satellite launch recovery
d. Weather forecasting
Ans: B
Explanation: White Rabbit is a CERN-developed protocol for precise time dissemination over Ethernet.

Exam tip: Revise Indian Standard Time Rules 2026 together with the static links above; UPSC and APPSC prelims often frame questions from these interconnections.

To learn current affairs from exam point of view, Click here.

To know more about the IST Rules notification, Click here.

Indian Standard Time Rules 2026: IST Mandatory, NavIC, 82.5°E – 8 Prelims Facts Read More »

Sone River Water Sharing Pact: Bihar–Jharkhand End 25-Year Dispute (UPSC Notes)

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, National Current Affairs / PSCchronicles team

The Sone River water sharing dispute between Bihar and Jharkhand has been resolved through an MoU signed in the presence of the Union Home Minister. This note covers the Sone River water sharing pact and the river’s geography for prelims.

Why in News?

Bihar and Jharkhand signed an MoU to divide the 7.75 million acre-feet (MAF) of Sone water originally allotted to undivided Bihar under the 1973 Bansagar Agreement.

The pact ends a dispute pending since Jharkhand’s creation in 2000 and will provide irrigation to lakhs of farmers and drinking water in both states.

Sone River water sharing: Key Facts for Prelims

Bansagar Agreement (1973): signed by Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar for the Bansagar dam on the Sone; water share was fixed for undivided Bihar.
Bansagar Dam is in Shahdol district, Madhya Pradesh; Indrapuri Barrage (Bihar) is the main diversion structure on the Sone.
The MoU was facilitated by the Centre (Ministry of Home Affairs / Inter-State Council mechanism) rather than by a tribunal.
Beneficiary regions: Sone command area districts of south Bihar (Rohtas, Kaimur, Bhojpur, Aurangabad, Patna etc.) and Palamu region of Jharkhand.

Sone River – geography for prelims

Second-largest southern (right-bank) tributary of the Ganga after the Yamuna.
Origin: near Amarkantak (Maikal Range), Madhya Pradesh/Chhattisgarh border – just east of the source of the Narmada.
Flows through five states: Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand and Bihar; joins the Ganga near Patna (Maner).
Tributaries: Rihand, Koel (North Koel), Kanhar, Gopad, Johilla. Rihand Dam (Govind Ballabh Pant Sagar) is on the Rihand in UP.
Notable: Sone is a ‘gold-yielding’ river (Hiranyabahu in ancient texts); Dehri-on-Sone bridge was once among Asia’s longest.

Inter-state water disputes – constitutional links

Article 262: Parliament may provide for adjudication of inter-state river disputes and bar court jurisdiction.
Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956 (tribunals) and River Boards Act, 1956.
Article 263: Inter-State Council (set up in 1990 on Sarkaria Commission advice).
Active tribunals: Krishna (KWDT-II), Mahadayi, Vansadhara, Mahanadi, Ravi-Beas.

Quick Revision Table: Sone River water sharing

Point	Detail
Parties	Bihar and Jharkhand
Water divided	7.75 MAF (undivided Bihar’s share)
Base agreement	Bansagar Agreement 1973 (MP, UP, Bihar)
Bansagar Dam location	Shahdol, Madhya Pradesh
Sone origin	Amarkantak, Maikal Range
Ganga tributary rank	2nd largest right-bank tributary after Yamuna
Constitutional provision	Article 262 + ISRWD Act 1956

Trap / Confusing Points: Sone River water sharing

Confusion	Correct Position
Sone is a left-bank tributary of the Ganga	No – right-bank (southern) tributary
Sone and Narmada flow in the same direction	No – Narmada flows west to the Arabian Sea; Sone flows north-east to the Ganga
Dispute settled by a tribunal award	No – settled by an MoU between the states
Bansagar Dam is in Bihar	No – in Madhya Pradesh (Shahdol)

5 Practice MCQs on Sone River water sharing

1. The Sone River originates near:
a. Mahabaleshwar
b. Amarkantak
c. Nasik
d. Betul
Ans: B
Explanation: Sone rises near Amarkantak in the Maikal Range, close to the Narmada’s source.

2. The Bansagar Agreement of 1973 was signed among which states?
a. Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha
b. Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar
c. Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal
d. Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Bihar
Ans: B
Explanation: MP, UP and (undivided) Bihar signed it for the Bansagar project on the Sone.

3. Which of the following is NOT a tributary of the Sone?
a. Rihand
b. Koel
c. Kanhar
d. Kosi
Ans: D
Explanation: Kosi is a left-bank tributary of the Ganga from Nepal; Rihand, Koel and Kanhar feed the Sone.

4. Article 262 of the Constitution deals with:
a. Inter-State Council
b. Adjudication of inter-state river water disputes
c. Finance Commission
d. Zonal Councils
Ans: B
Explanation: Article 262 lets Parliament legislate on inter-state river disputes and exclude court jurisdiction.

5. The Sone River joins the Ganga near:
a. Varanasi
b. Patna
c. Bhagalpur
d. Allahabad
Ans: B
Explanation: The confluence is at Maner, west of Patna.

Exam tip: Revise Sone River water sharing together with the static links above; UPSC and APPSC prelims often frame questions from these interconnections.

To learn current affairs from exam point of view, Click here.

To know more about the Sone water pact, Click here.

Sone River Water Sharing Pact: Bihar–Jharkhand End 25-Year Dispute (UPSC Notes) Read More »

MP to Send Tigers and Gaurs to Andhra Pradesh: Gundla Brahmeswaram Sanctuary

1 Comment / Daily Current Affairs, Andhra Pradesh Current Affairs, Environment and Ecology Current Affairs, National Current Affairs / PSCchronicles team

Why in News?

Madhya Pradesh has agreed to provide tigers and Indian bison (gaurs) to Andhra Pradesh. AP plans to reintroduce 25–30 gaurs into the Gundla Brahmeswaram Wildlife Sanctuary in the Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve (NSTR).

Key Facts for Prelims

Madhya Pradesh & Tiger Census

MP had 785 tigers as per the 2022 All India Tiger Estimation — highest tiger population of any state

Gundla Brahmeswaram (GBM) Wildlife Sanctuary

Location: Nallamala Hills, Eastern Ghats — Kurnool and Prakasam districts, Andhra Pradesh
Hill Passes: Between Mantralamma Kanuma and Nandi Kanuma
River: Gundlakamma River — perennial water source
Endemic Species: Lesser Woolly Horseshoe Bat — found only in this region
Part of: Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve (NSTR)

Quick Revision Table

Parameter	Detail
State with highest tigers (2022)	Madhya Pradesh (785 tigers)
Sanctuary	Gundla Brahmeswaram Wildlife Sanctuary
Location	Nallamala Hills, Eastern Ghats (Kurnool & Prakasam, AP)
Tiger Reserve	Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve (NSTR)
River	Gundlakamma River
Endemic species	Lesser Woolly Horseshoe Bat
Animals to be reintroduced	25–30 gaurs (Indian bison)

Trap / Confusing Points

Confusion	Correct Fact
Gaur = American Bison	Gaur is the Indian Bison — different from American bison
GBM is in Telangana	GBM is in Andhra Pradesh (Kurnool and Prakasam districts)
NSTR is only in AP	NSTR spans both Andhra Pradesh and Telangana
MP has 500 tigers (2022 census)	MP had 785 tigers in 2022 — highest in India
GBM is in Western Ghats	GBM is in the Eastern Ghats (Nallamala Hills)

Practice MCQs

1. As per 2022 tiger estimation, which state has the highest tiger population?

a. Uttarakhand
b. Karnataka
c. Madhya Pradesh
d. Maharashtra

Ans: C
Madhya Pradesh had 785 tigers in the 2022 census — highest for any state.

2. Gundla Brahmeswaram Wildlife Sanctuary is part of which tiger reserve?

a. Amrabad Tiger Reserve
b. Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
c. Satpura Tiger Reserve
d. Simlipal Tiger Reserve

Ans: B
GBM Wildlife Sanctuary lies within the Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve (NSTR).

3. GBM Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which hill range?

a. Shevaroy Hills
b. Cardamom Hills
c. Nallamala Hills
d. Papi Hills

Ans: C
GBM is in the Nallamallai Hill ranges of the Eastern Ghats in Kurnool and Prakasam districts of AP.

4. The endemic species uniquely found in GBM Wildlife Sanctuary?

a. Indian Star Tortoise
b. Lesser Woolly Horseshoe Bat
c. Slender Loris
d. Indian Giant Squirrel

Ans: B
The Lesser Woolly Horseshoe Bat is a rare mammal found only in the Gundla Brahmeswaram region.

5. Which river provides a perennial water source in GBM Wildlife Sanctuary?

a. Krishna River
b. Tungabhadra River
c. Gundlakamma River
d. Penna River

Ans: C
The Gundlakamma River is a perennial water source crisscrossing the sanctuary.

To learn current affairs from exam point of view, Click here.

To know more about tiger conservation in India, Click here.

MP to Send Tigers and Gaurs to Andhra Pradesh: Gundla Brahmeswaram Sanctuary Read More »

World Day to Combat Desertification and Drought: June 17

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, Environment and Ecology Current Affairs, National Current Affairs / PSCchronicles team

Why in News?

The World Day to Combat Desertification and Drought is observed globally on June 17 every year. The day commemorates the adoption of the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD).

Key Facts for Prelims: UNCCD

Origin: Conceived at the 1992 Rio Earth Summit (UNCED)
Formally Adopted: 1994 in Paris
Came into Force: 1996
Significance: The only legally binding international agreement linking environmental conservation directly to sustainable land management
Focus: Addresses desertification, land degradation, and drought (DLDD)
India’s Target: Restore 26 million hectares of degraded land by 2030 — Land Degradation Neutrality (LDN)

The Three Rio Conventions (1992)

Convention	Focus	Adopted	In Force
UNCCD	Desertification, Land Degradation, Drought	1994	1996
UNFCCC	Climate Change	1992	1994
CBD	Biodiversity Conservation	1992	1993

Trap / Confusing Points

Confusion	Correct Fact
UNCCD was adopted at Rio 1992	UNCCD was conceived at Rio 1992 but formally adopted in 1994 in Paris
Desertification Day is June 5	June 5 = World Environment Day; June 17 = Desertification and Drought Day
UNCCD focuses on climate change	UNCCD focuses on desertification, land degradation, drought; UNFCCC handles climate change
India targets 30 million ha restoration	India’s target is 26 million hectares by 2030

Practice MCQs

1. World Day to Combat Desertification and Drought is observed on which date?

a. June 5
b. June 8
c. June 17
d. June 21

Ans: C
June 17 commemorates the adoption of UNCCD.

2. UNCCD was formally adopted in which year and city?

a. 1992, Rio de Janeiro
b. 1994, Paris
c. 1996, New York
d. 2000, Bonn

Ans: B
UNCCD was formally adopted in 1994 in Paris.

3. UNCCD is the only legally binding agreement linking environmental conservation to?

a. Renewable energy targets
b. Sustainable land management
c. Marine biodiversity protection
d. Climate financing

Ans: B
UNCCD uniquely links environmental conservation to sustainable land management.

4. India’s target for restoration of degraded land under LDN?

a. 15 million hectares
b. 20 million hectares
c. 26 million hectares
d. 30 million hectares

Ans: C
India committed to restoring 26 million hectares of degraded land by 2030.

5. Which Rio Convention focuses on desertification and land degradation?

a. UNFCCC
b. CBD
c. UNCCD
d. Ramsar Convention

Ans: C
UNCCD specifically addresses desertification, land degradation, and drought.

To learn current affairs from exam point of view, Click here.

To know more about UNCCD, Click here.

World Day to Combat Desertification and Drought: June 17 Read More »

PSS Procurement of Pulses and Oilseeds in 4 States: PM-AASHA | UPSC Notes

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, Indian Economy Current Affairs, National Current Affairs / PSCchronicles team

Why in News?

The Centre approved large-scale procurement of pulses and oilseeds at MSP under the Price Support Scheme (PSS) in four states: Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, and Haryana.

Key Facts for Prelims: MSP & PM-AASHA

Minimum Support Price (MSP)

MSP is the guaranteed rate at which the government buys crops from farmers
Recommending body: Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) under Ministry of Agriculture
Approving body: Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), chaired by PM
MSP is announced for 22 mandated crops (14 Kharif + 6 Rabi + 2 commercial) + FRP for sugarcane

PM-AASHA

Type: Central Sector Umbrella Scheme
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare

PM-AASHA’s Three Components

Component	Mechanism	Crops
Price Support Scheme (PSS)	Physical procurement at MSP	Pulses, Oilseeds, Copra
Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS)	DBT cash transfer of MSP-market price gap	Oilseeds
Private Procurement & Stockist Scheme (PPSS)	Private stockists procure oilseeds at MSP — pilot basis	Oilseeds (selected districts)

Trap / Confusing Points

Confusion	Correct Fact
CACP approves MSP	CACP only recommends; CCEA approves
MSP covers all crops	MSP for 22 mandated crops + FRP for sugarcane only
PM-AASHA is under Ministry of Finance	PM-AASHA is under Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
PDPS is physical procurement	PDPS is a cash transfer (DBT) — no physical procurement
PSS covers all crops	PSS covers only pulses, oilseeds, and copra

Practice MCQs

1. Which body recommends MSP for crops?

a. CCEA
b. NITI Aayog
c. Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)
d. FCI

Ans: C
CACP recommends MSP; CCEA chaired by PM gives final approval.

2. MSP is announced for how many mandated crops?

a. 14
b. 18
c. 22
d. 26

Ans: C
MSP is announced for 22 mandated crops (14 Kharif + 6 Rabi + 2 commercial) plus FRP for sugarcane.

3. Which PM-AASHA component involves direct cash transfer to farmers?

a. PSS
b. PDPS
c. PPSS
d. Market Intervention Scheme

Ans: B
PDPS covers the deficit between MSP and market price via DBT.

4. PSS procurement was recently approved for which four states?

a. TN, Gujarat, UP, Haryana
b. MP, Rajasthan, Punjab, Maharashtra
c. Bihar, Odisha, Karnataka, AP
d. Telangana, WB, Kerala, Assam

Ans: A
PSS procurement approved in Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, and Haryana.

5. PM-AASHA is classified as which type of scheme?

a. Centrally Sponsored Scheme
b. State Sector Scheme
c. Central Sector Umbrella Scheme
d. PPP Scheme

Ans: C
PM-AASHA is a Central Sector Umbrella Scheme under Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

To learn current affairs from exam point of view, Click here.

To know more about PM-AASHA, Click here.

PSS Procurement of Pulses and Oilseeds in 4 States: PM-AASHA | UPSC Notes Read More »

Cabinet Approves ₹37,500 Crore Coal/Lignite Gasification Scheme | UPSC Notes

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, Indian Economy Current Affairs, National Current Affairs / PSCchronicles team

Why in News?

The Union Cabinet approved a Scheme for Promotion of Surface Coal/Lignite Gasification Projects with a financial outlay of ₹37,500 crore. The scheme targets gasification of 100 Million Tonnes (MT) of coal by 2030.

Key Facts for Prelims

Financial Outlay: ₹37,500 crore
National Target: Gasify 100 MT of coal by 2030
Product: Syngas (synthesis gas) — versatile feedstock for fuels and chemicals
India’s Coal Reserves: ~401 billion tonnes (one of world’s largest)
India’s Lignite Reserves: ~47 billion tonnes
Coal’s share in India’s energy mix: Over 55%

Why Coal Gasification? Import Substitution

Product	Current Import Dependence
LNG	More than 50% imported
Urea	~20% imported
Ammonia	~100% imported
Methanol	~80–90% imported

Trap / Confusing Points

Confusion	Correct Fact
Gasification = combustion of coal	Gasification converts coal to syngas — a chemical process, not direct combustion
Target is 100 MT by 2025	Target is 100 MT by 2030
Coal’s share in energy is 30%	Coal accounts for over 55% of India’s energy mix
India has limited coal reserves	India has ~401 billion tonnes — one of the world’s largest

Practice MCQs

1. Financial outlay of the Coal/Lignite Gasification Promotion Scheme?

a. ₹15,000 crore
b. ₹25,000 crore
c. ₹37,500 crore
d. ₹50,000 crore

Ans: C
The Cabinet approved the scheme with a financial outlay of ₹37,500 crore.

2. Coal gasification primarily produces?

a. CNG
b. Synthesis gas (Syngas)
c. LPG
d. Coal Tar

Ans: B
Gasification converts coal/lignite into syngas — a versatile feedstock for fuels and chemicals.

3. India’s national target for coal gasification by 2030?

a. 50 MT
b. 75 MT
c. 100 MT
d. 150 MT

Ans: C
India’s target is gasifying 100 MT of coal by 2030.

4. Coal’s share in India’s energy mix?

a. Over 30%
b. Over 40%
c. Over 55%
d. Over 70%

Ans: C
Coal accounts for over 55% of India’s energy mix.

5. Which import product is currently ~100% imported and can be substituted by coal gasification?

a. LNG
b. Methanol
c. Ammonia
d. Urea

Ans: C
India imports ~100% of its ammonia. Domestic syngas production can address this dependency.

To learn current affairs from exam point of view, Click here.

To know more about India’s coal gasification mission, Click here.

Cabinet Approves ₹37,500 Crore Coal/Lignite Gasification Scheme | UPSC Notes Read More »