Daily Current Affairs Archives | Page 6 of 33

Adilabad Airport: Telangana’s Largest Joint Airfield After Shamshabad

Why in News?

Adilabad is set to become Telangana’s largest joint airfield after Hyderabad’s Rajiv Gandhi International Airport at Shamshabad. The proposed airport is a joint-user facility being developed by the Indian Defence Ministry and the Airports Authority of India (AAI), designed for dual usage — commercial passenger flights and Indian Air Force (IAF) training activities.

Key Facts for Prelims

The Adilabad Airport is a joint-user (dual-use) facility — serves both civilian (commercial) and military (IAF training) purposes.
Developed jointly by the Ministry of Defence and Airports Authority of India (AAI).
Telangana’s largest airport currently: Rajiv Gandhi International Airport, Shamshabad (Hyderabad).
The Union Ministry of Civil Aviation has announced two more airports in Telangana: Warangal and Adilabad.
AAI (Airports Authority of India) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Civil Aviation, established under the Airports Authority of India Act, 1994.

Interconnected Exam Concepts

Airports Authority of India (AAI): Statutory body under Ministry of Civil Aviation. Manages 137+ airports. Formed by merging the National Airports Authority and International Airports Authority of India in 1995.
Joint-user airfields: Airports shared between civilian aviation and defence/military use — common in India (e.g., Leh, Srinagar, Port Blair).
UDAN Scheme (Ude Desh ka Aam Naagrik): Regional connectivity scheme under Ministry of Civil Aviation. New airports like Adilabad and Warangal align with this initiative.
Greenfield Airport Policy: A policy for new airport development in areas not served by existing airports.

Quick Revision Table

Parameter	Key Fact
Proposed Airport	Adilabad Airport, Telangana
Type	Joint-user (dual-use) facility
Developed By	Ministry of Defence + AAI
Usage	Commercial flights + IAF training
Largest Airport in Telangana (current)	Rajiv Gandhi International Airport, Shamshabad
Other Announced Telangana Airports	Warangal and Adilabad
AAI Governing Act	Airports Authority of India Act, 1994
AAI Under	Ministry of Civil Aviation

Trap / Confusing Points

Common Confusion	Correct Fact
AAI manages all airports including private ones	AAI manages govt/public airports; private airports (like RGIA Hyderabad) are managed by private entities under concession
Adilabad will be Telangana’s first airport	Hyderabad’s Shamshabad already exists; Adilabad will be the largest joint airfield after it
AAI was established in 1994	The Act is 1994; AAI was operationally formed in 1995 after merger
Joint-user airport = managed only by Defence	It is jointly managed by Defence + AAI for dual purposes

Practice MCQs

1. The proposed Adilabad Airport is being developed jointly by which two bodies?

a. Ministry of Civil Aviation and NITI Aayog
b. Ministry of Defence and Airports Authority of India
c. Indian Air Force and Ministry of External Affairs
d. State Government and DRDO

Ans: B
Adilabad Airport is a joint-user facility being developed by the Indian Ministry of Defence and the Airports Authority of India (AAI), serving both commercial and IAF training purposes.

2. The Airports Authority of India (AAI) was constituted under which Act?

a. Air Corporations Act, 1953
b. Aircraft Act, 1934
c. Airports Authority of India Act, 1994
d. Civil Aviation Authority Act, 2000

Ans: C
AAI was constituted under the Airports Authority of India Act, 1994 and became operational in 1995 after the merger of two earlier bodies.

3. Which of the following is currently the largest airport in Telangana?

a. Adilabad Airport
b. Warangal Airport
c. Rajiv Gandhi International Airport, Shamshabad
d. Begumpet Airport

Ans: C
Rajiv Gandhi International Airport at Shamshabad, Hyderabad, is currently the largest airport in Telangana. Adilabad will be the largest joint airfield after this.

4. The UDAN scheme is associated with which Ministry?

a. Ministry of Railways
b. Ministry of Road Transport
c. Ministry of Civil Aviation
d. Ministry of Commerce

Ans: C
UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Naagrik) is a regional connectivity scheme under the Ministry of Civil Aviation to make air travel affordable to common citizens.

5. Which of the following best describes a “joint-user airfield” in India?

a. An airport exclusively used by the Indian Air Force
b. An airport shared between civilian aviation and military/defence use
c. An airport jointly managed by two state governments
d. An airport under Public-Private Partnership only

Ans: B
A joint-user airfield serves both civilian (commercial) aviation and military/defence purposes. Examples include Leh, Srinagar, and Port Blair airports.

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Adilabad Airport: Telangana’s Largest Joint Airfield After Shamshabad Read More »

Small Modular Reactors in Andhra Pradesh: Nara Lokesh Invites Russia’s Rosatom

Why in News?

Andhra Pradesh IT and HRD Minister Nara Lokesh invited Rosatom, Russia’s state-owned nuclear technology corporation, to establish Small Modular Reactors (SMRs) in Andhra Pradesh for power generation. He also proposed setting up a Nuclear Medicine and Food Irradiation Centre to boost India’s pharmaceutical sector and agricultural exports.

Key Facts for Prelims

Rosatom is Russia’s state-owned nuclear energy corporation and a global nuclear technology leader.
SMRs produce up to 300 MWe per module — roughly one-third of a conventional nuclear plant’s output.
SMRs are factory-fabricated and modular — components are transported by truck or train and assembled on-site (plug-and-play model).
They use nuclear fission to generate heat, then steam, then electricity (clean energy).
SMRs have a significantly smaller physical footprint compared to traditional nuclear power plants.
India is developing three indigenous SMR models to support decarbonization and energy security.

India’s Indigenous SMR Models (Exam Static)

BSMR-200 (Bharat Small Modular Reactor): 220 MWe, Pressurized Water Reactor (PWR), uses Slightly Enriched Uranium (SEU). Designed for commercial deployment and replacing retiring fossil-fuel plants.
SMR-55: 55 MWe modular PWR. Focuses on flexible, localized power generation.
HTGCR (High-Temperature Gas-Cooled Reactor): 5 MWth. Primarily for hydrogen generation — supports industrial decarbonization and transport.

Interconnected Exam Concepts

Nuclear Fission vs. Fusion: SMRs use fission (splitting heavy atoms like Uranium). Fusion (used in stars) is still experimental for power generation.
Pressurized Water Reactor (PWR): Most common type of nuclear reactor worldwide; uses water as both coolant and moderator.
India’s Nuclear Programme: Governed by the Atomic Energy Act, 1962. The Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) oversees it; the Nuclear Power Corporation of India (NPCIL) operates plants.
India’s Three-Stage Nuclear Programme: Stage 1 (PHWRs using natural uranium), Stage 2 (Fast Breeder Reactors using plutonium), Stage 3 (Thorium-based reactors). SMRs are complementary to this.

Quick Revision Table

Parameter	Key Fact
SMR Capacity	Up to 300 MWe per module
Rosatom (Russia)	State-owned nuclear tech corporation
BSMR-200 Capacity	220 MWe (PWR, uses SEU)
SMR-55 Capacity	55 MWe (modular PWR)
HTGCR Capacity	5 MWth (for hydrogen generation)
SMR Key Feature	Factory-fabricated, modular, plug-and-play
Nuclear Reaction Used	Fission (not fusion)
Nodal Body – Nuclear Energy	Department of Atomic Energy (DAE)

Trap / Confusing Points

Common Confusion	Correct Fact
SMRs use nuclear fusion	Wrong — SMRs use nuclear fission
Rosatom is a private company	Wrong — it is state-owned by Russia
BSMR-200 uses natural uranium	Wrong — it uses Slightly Enriched Uranium (SEU)
HTGCR is for electricity generation	Primarily for hydrogen generation, not electricity
SMRs replace India’s three-stage nuclear programme	They are complementary, not a replacement

Practice MCQs

1. Which of the following best describes a Small Modular Reactor (SMR)?

a. A fusion-based reactor producing over 1000 MWe
b. A fission-based reactor producing up to 300 MWe per module
c. A hydrogen-powered turbine used in remote areas
d. A thorium-based reactor under India’s Stage 3 programme

Ans: B
SMRs are nuclear fission reactors that produce up to 300 MWe per module — far smaller than conventional nuclear plants (~1000 MWe+).

2. India’s indigenous BSMR-200 is classified as which type of reactor?

a. Fast Breeder Reactor using plutonium
b. High-Temperature Gas-Cooled Reactor
c. Pressurized Water Reactor using Slightly Enriched Uranium
d. Boiling Water Reactor using natural uranium

Ans: C
BSMR-200 is a 220 MWe Pressurized Water Reactor (PWR) using Slightly Enriched Uranium (SEU), intended for commercial deployment.

3. Rosatom, which was invited to set up SMRs in Andhra Pradesh, belongs to which country?

a. USA
b. France
c. China
d. Russia

Ans: D
Rosatom is Russia’s state-owned nuclear energy corporation and one of the largest nuclear technology companies in the world.

4. Which of India’s indigenous SMR models is primarily designed for hydrogen generation?

a. BSMR-200
b. SMR-55
c. HTGCR
d. AHWR-300

Ans: C
The High-Temperature Gas-Cooled Reactor (HTGCR) with 5 MWth capacity is designed primarily for hydrogen generation to support industrial decarbonization.

5. Which department governs India’s nuclear energy programme?

a. Ministry of Power
b. Ministry of Science and Technology
c. Department of Atomic Energy
d. DRDO

Ans: C
The Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), under the Prime Minister’s Office, governs India’s nuclear energy programme. NPCIL under DAE operates nuclear plants.

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Small Modular Reactors in Andhra Pradesh: Nara Lokesh Invites Russia’s Rosatom Read More »

VB-G RAM G Scheme 2026: Replaces MGNREGA – UPSC & State PSC Prelims Notes

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, Andhra Pradesh Current Affairs, Indian Economy Current Affairs / PSC Chronicles Team

The Andhra Pradesh Cabinet officially approved the implementation of the Viksit Bharat Guarantee for Rozgar and Aajeevika Mission (Gramin) – VB-G RAM G in the state, effective July 1, 2026. This scheme replaces the two-decade-old MGNREGA program and is critical for UPSC, APPSC, and TGPSC Prelims from the perspectives of rural employment, social security, and cooperative federalism.

Why in News

Andhra Pradesh became one of the early states to officially approve the nationwide rollout of VB-G RAM G, which repeals and replaces MGNREGA effective July 1, 2026. The scheme enhances employment guarantees and restructures funding between the Centre and States.

What is VB-G RAM G?

Full Form: Viksit Bharat Guarantee for Rozgar and Aajeevika Mission (Gramin)

A Centrally Sponsored Scheme that replaces MGNREGA (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005)
Effective date in AP: July 1, 2026
Objective: Enhance rural employment, create durable public assets, and ensure livelihood security

Key Features of VB-G RAM G

Enhanced Employment Guarantee: Increased from 100 days (MGNREGA) → 125 days per financial year per rural household
Work Provision Timeline: Local administration must provide employment within 15 days of application
Four Infrastructure Verticals: Employment strictly integrated with creating durable public assets in — (1) Water security, (2) Core rural infrastructure, (3) Livelihood infrastructure, (4) Extreme weather mitigation
Agricultural Safeguard Pause: State governments can notify a collective 60-day no-work period during peak sowing and harvesting seasons to avoid farm labour shortages
Unemployment Allowance: If work is not provided within 15 days — minimum 1/4th of wage rate for the first 30 days, and 1/2 of wage rate for the remaining period, paid from the state’s own budget
Delay Compensation: Wages must be credited weekly or within 15 days of closing muster roll. Delay beyond 16th day = compensation at 0.05% of unpaid wages per day

Funding Pattern

Category	Centre : State Ratio
General States	60 : 40
North-Eastern & Himalayan States	90 : 10
Union Territories (without legislature)	100% Central funding

MGNREGA vs VB-G RAM G

Parameter	MGNREGA	VB-G RAM G
Employment Guarantee	100 days/year	125 days/year
Work within	15 days	15 days
Agricultural Pause	Not specified	60-day collective pause
Unemployment Allowance	Available	1/4th (1-30 days), 1/2 (beyond)
Delay Compensation	0.5% per day	0.05% per day (from Day 16)
Funding (General States)	Varies by component	60:40 (Centre:State)
Enacted	2005 (over 20 years old)	2026 (replaces MGNREGA)

Static/Exam Connections

Article 41 (DPSP): The State shall make effective provision for securing the right to work — legal basis for employment guarantee schemes
Article 43 (DPSP): State shall endeavour to secure a living wage and decent standard of life for workers
Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS): Funded jointly by Centre and States; implemented by states as per national guidelines
MGNREGA (2005): Was renamed from NREG Act to MGNREGA in 2009 in honour of Mahatma Gandhi; now repealed by VB-G RAM G
Finance Commission: Determines Centre-State fiscal transfers; CSS funding follows separate norms
Cooperative Federalism: The 60:40 funding ratio reflects greater financial responsibility on states vs MGNREGA’s earlier norms

Quick Revision Table

Feature	Key Fact
Scheme replaces	MGNREGA (2005)
Employment guarantee	125 days/year
Work provision deadline	15 days from application
Agricultural no-work pause	60 days (state notified)
Unemployment allowance (first 30 days)	Minimum 1/4th of wage
Unemployment allowance (beyond 30 days)	Minimum 1/2 of wage
Delay compensation	0.05% per day from Day 16
Funding – General States	60:40 (Centre:State)
Funding – NE/Himalayan States	90:10
Funding – UTs (no legislature)	100% Central
AP effective date	July 1, 2026

Trap / Confusing Points

Common Confusion	Correct Fact
VB-G RAM G supplements MGNREGA	It REPLACES (repeals) MGNREGA entirely
Employment guarantee = 100 days	VB-G RAM G guarantees 125 days (MGNREGA was 100 days)
Unemployment allowance from state = Centre-funded	Unemployment allowance is paid from the STATE’s own budget
Delay compensation = 0.5% per day	It is 0.05% per day (not 0.5%); kicks in from the 16th day
General States funding = 90:10	90:10 is for NE and Himalayan States only; General States = 60:40

Practice MCQs

1. VB-G RAM G replaces which existing rural employment scheme?

a. PM Kisan Samman Nidhi
b. PMEGP
c. MGNREGA
d. PMAY-G

Ans: C
VB-G RAM G (Viksit Bharat Guarantee for Rozgar and Aajeevika Mission Gramin) replaces MGNREGA (2005). PMAY-G is a housing scheme; PM Kisan is an income support scheme; PMEGP is an employment generation scheme.

2. Under VB-G RAM G, how many days of employment are guaranteed per rural household per year?

a. 100 days
b. 150 days
c. 125 days
d. 200 days

Ans: C
VB-G RAM G enhances the employment guarantee from MGNREGA’s 100 days to 125 days per financial year per rural household.

3. Under VB-G RAM G, what is the maximum number of days within which employment must be provided after a worker’s application?

a. 7 days
b. 10 days
c. 15 days
d. 30 days

Ans: C
Local administration must provide employment within 15 days. Failure triggers mandatory unemployment allowance paid from the state’s own budget.

4. Under VB-G RAM G, what is the Centre-State cost-sharing ratio for General States?

a. 75:25
b. 80:20
c. 60:40
d. 90:10

Ans: C
General States follow a 60:40 ratio (Centre:State). NE and Himalayan states get enhanced support at 90:10. UTs without legislature receive 100% central funding.

5. Under VB-G RAM G, delay compensation for late wage payment is charged at:

a. 0.5% per day from the 11th day
b. 0.05% per day after the 16th day
c. 0.1% per day from the 15th day
d. 1% per week after the 7th day

Ans: B
If wages are not credited within 15 days, states must pay compensation at 0.05% of unpaid wages per day from the 16th day onward. Note: 0.05%, NOT 0.5%.

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VB-G RAM G Scheme 2026: Replaces MGNREGA – UPSC & State PSC Prelims Notes Read More »

AP State Aviation Policy 2026-31

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, Andhra Pradesh Current Affairs / PSC Chronicles Team

The AP Cabinet approved the AP State Aviation Policy 2026-31, setting a strategic roadmap to transform Andhra Pradesh into a major aviation and aerospace hub over the next decade. This is an important development for APPSC, UPSC, and TGPSC Prelims aspirants from the perspective of state-level infrastructure and economic policy.

AP State Aviation Policy 2026-31: Why in News

The Andhra Pradesh Cabinet approved the AP State Aviation Policy 2026-31, mapping out ambitious infrastructure expansion, passenger growth, and cargo capacity targets to position AP as a leading aviation destination in India.

Key Facts for Prelims

Policy Period: 2026–2031
Passenger Capacity Target: From 6.2 million → 30.38 million by 2035
Cargo Capacity Target: From 6,240 metric tonnes → 4.27 lakh metric tonnes
New Airports Planned: 9
Waterdromes Planned: 10 (for seaplane operations)
Accessibility Goal: Operational airport or transit point within 150-km radius anywhere in AP

Static/Exam Connections

DGCA (Directorate General of Civil Aviation): Regulatory body for civil aviation in India under the Ministry of Civil Aviation
AAI (Airports Authority of India): Manages airport infrastructure across India; established under the Airports Authority of India Act, 1994
UDAN Scheme (Ude Desh ka Aam Naagrik): Regional Connectivity Scheme (RCS) launched in 2016 to provide affordable air travel; operationalised under the National Civil Aviation Policy 2016
Waterdromes: Infrastructure for seaplane operations; used in coastal and island states. AP’s coastline makes it strategically suitable
National Civil Aviation Policy 2016: First comprehensive aviation policy of India aiming to take flying to the masses
BCAS (Bureau of Civil Aviation Security): Responsible for airport security, distinct from DGCA

Quick Revision Table

Parameter	Current Status	Target
Annual Passenger Handling	6.2 million	30.38 million (by 2035)
Air Cargo Capacity	6,240 metric tonnes	4.27 lakh metric tonnes
New Airports	—	9
Waterdromes	—	10
Accessibility Radius	—	150 km (airport/transit point)

Trap / Confusing Points

Common Confusion	Correct Fact
Policy period = till 2035	Policy period is 2026–31; the 30.38 million passenger target is for 2035
Waterdromes = airports	Waterdromes are seaplane docking facilities, not conventional airports
DGCA manages airports	AAI manages airports; DGCA is the regulatory/licensing body
UDAN = aviation policy	UDAN is a regional connectivity scheme under National Civil Aviation Policy 2016

Practice MCQs

1. What is the annual passenger handling target set under AP State Aviation Policy 2026-31 by 2035?

a. 12.5 million
b. 20 million
c. 30.38 million
d. 25 million

Ans: C
The AP State Aviation Policy 2026-31 targets scaling annual passenger handling from 6.2 million to 30.38 million by 2035.

2. How many waterdromes are planned under AP State Aviation Policy 2026-31?

a. 5
b. 7
c. 9
d. 10

Ans: D
10 waterdromes are planned (for seaplane operations) along with 9 new conventional airports under the policy.

3. Which body regulates civil aviation in India?

a. AAI
b. DGCA
c. BCAS
d. NACIL

Ans: B
DGCA (Directorate General of Civil Aviation) is the regulatory body for civil aviation in India. AAI manages airports, BCAS handles security, and NACIL was Air India’s holding company.

4. UDAN scheme stands for:

a. Urban Development of Airports Network
b. Ude Desh ka Aam Naagrik
c. Unified Development of Aerodrome Network
d. Urban and Domestic Aviation Navigation

Ans: B
UDAN = Ude Desh ka Aam Naagrik. It is a regional connectivity scheme launched under India’s National Civil Aviation Policy 2016 to make air travel affordable for common citizens.

5. What is the airport accessibility goal under AP Aviation Policy 2026-31?

a. Airport within 100-km radius
b. Airport within 200-km radius
c. Operational airport or transit point within 150-km radius
d. Helipad within 50-km radius

Ans: C
The policy targets providing an operational airport or transit point within a 150-km radius anywhere in Andhra Pradesh.

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AP State Aviation Policy 2026-31 Read More »

Justice Ravi Nath Tilhari as APSLSA Executive Chairman

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, Andhra Pradesh Current Affairs / PSC Chronicles Team

Why in News?

Recently Justice Ravi Nath Tilhari as APSLSA Executive Chairman

Key Facts for Prelims

SLSA is a statutory body under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
It provides free and competent legal services to weaker sections.
Article 39A directs the State to ensure equal justice and free legal aid.
Article 14 gives equality before law.
Article 21 includes fair trial and speedy justice.

Composition

Patron-in-Chief: Chief Justice of the State High Court.
Executive Chairman: serving or retired High Court judge nominated as per law.
SLSA implements NALSA schemes at state level.

Quick Revision Table

Term	Exam Meaning
SLSA	State-level legal aid authority
NALSA	National legal services authority
Article 39A	Equal justice and free legal aid
Lok Adalat	ADR mechanism for settlement

Trap / Confusing Points

Confusion	Correct Point
Article 39A vs Article 14	39A is DPSP; 14 is Fundamental Right.
SLSA vs DLSA	SLSA works at state level; DLSA at district level.

Practice MCQs

1. SLSA is constituted under which Act? A. RTI Act B. Legal Services Authorities Act C. RPA D. EPA
Answer: B

2. Article 39A deals with: A. Free legal aid B. GST C. Emergency D. Panchayats
Answer: A

3. Patron-in-Chief of SLSA is generally: A. Governor B. Chief Justice of High Court C. CM D. Speaker
Answer: B

4. Lok Adalat is linked to: A. ADR B. Missile defence C. Agriculture D. Banking only
Answer: A

5. NALSA operates at: A. National level B. District only C. Mandal only D. Village only
Answer: A

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APSLSA, Ravi Nath Tilhari, Legal Services Authority, Article 39A, NALSA, Polity Current Affairs, APPSC, TGPSC, UPSC Current Affairs

Justice Ravi Nath Tilhari as APSLSA Executive Chairman Read More »

D K Shivakumar Sworn in as Karnataka Chief Minister

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, National Current Affairs / PSC Chronicles Team

Why in News?

D K Shivakumar was sworn in as Chief Minister of Karnataka. The oath was administered by Governor Thaawarchand Gehlot.

Key Facts for Prelims

Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor under Article 164.
Governor normally appoints the leader of the majority party or coalition.
Oath of office and secrecy is administered by the Governor.
Forms of oath are given in the Third Schedule.
The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly.

Static Link: Article 164

Article 164 deals with appointment of Chief Minister and other ministers in states. Though the Constitution does not prescribe the exact selection process, parliamentary convention guides the Governor.

Quick Revision Table

Term	Exam Meaning
Article 164	Appointment of CM and ministers
Governor	Appoints CM and administers oath
Third Schedule	Forms of oaths and affirmations
Collective responsibility	Ministerial responsibility to Assembly

Trap / Confusing Points

Confusion	Correct Point
CM elected directly?	No, CM is appointed by Governor based on majority support.
Oath in Second Schedule?	No, oath forms are in Third Schedule.

Practice MCQs

1. CM is appointed under: A. Article 164 B. Article 356 C. Article 32 D. Article 280
Answer: A

2. CM oath is administered by: A. Governor B. Speaker C. CJI D. President only
Answer: A

3. Oath forms are in: A. Third Schedule B. Tenth Schedule C. Fifth Schedule D. First Schedule
Answer: A

4. Council of Ministers is responsible to: A. Legislative Assembly B. Supreme Court C. UPSC D. CAG
Answer: A

5. CM selection is mainly based on: A. Majority support B. Age C. Wealth D. Lok Sabha seat
Answer: A

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Karnataka Chief Minister, D K Shivakumar, Article 164, Governor, Third Schedule, Oath of Office, UPSC Current Affairs, APPSC, TGPSC

D K Shivakumar Sworn in as Karnataka Chief Minister Read More »

APCNF Wins 2026 Food Planet Prize

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, Andhra Pradesh Current Affairs, Environment and Ecology Current Affairs, Indian Polity and Constitution MCQs / PSC Chronicles Team

Why in News?

APCNF Food Planet Prize became important for exams after Andhra Pradesh Community Managed Natural Farming won the 2026 Food Planet Prize, a major global environmental award for food-system transformation.

Key Facts for Prelims

APCNF stands for Andhra Pradesh Community Managed Natural Farming.
It is implemented through Rythu Sadhikara Samstha (RySS).
The programme promotes chemical-free, community-led and climate-resilient farming.
The Food Planet Prize is given by the Curt Bergfors Foundation.
The 2026 award carries USD 1.5 million for the winner.

What is the Food Planet Prize?

The Food Planet Prize is a global environmental award focused on transforming food systems. It was established by Swedish entrepreneur and philanthropist Curt Bergfors through the Curt Bergfors Foundation.

What is APCNF?

APCNF is a women-led agroecology and natural farming programme launched in Andhra Pradesh in 2016. It encourages farmers to move away from synthetic fertilisers and pesticides towards nature-based farming.

Static Link: Natural Farming and Agroecology

Natural farming: Reduces dependence on external chemical inputs.
Agroecology: Applies ecological principles to farming systems.
Climate resilience: Improves soil health, water retention and local resilience.
Women collectives: Important for community mobilisation and last-mile adoption.

Quick Revision Table

Term	Exam Meaning
APCNF	Andhra Pradesh model of community-led natural farming
RySS	State institution implementing APCNF
Food Planet Prize	Environmental award for food-system transformation
Agroecology	Ecology-based approach to agriculture
Natural farming	Farming with reduced chemical dependence

Trap / Confusing Points

Confusion	Correct Point
APCNF vs organic farming	APCNF is a specific Andhra Pradesh community-managed natural farming programme.
Food Planet Prize vs World Food Prize	Food Planet Prize focuses on environmental transformation of food systems.
RySS vs ICAR	RySS is Andhra Pradesh’s implementation body for APCNF.

Practice MCQs

1. APCNF is mainly associated with which sector?
A. Defence B. Agriculture C. Space D. Banking
Answer: B

2. Food Planet Prize is linked to transformation of:
A. Food systems B. Election systems C. Tax systems D. Defence systems
Answer: A

3. RySS is associated with:
A. Natural farming B. Missile defence C. Legal aid D. BRICS finance
Answer: A

4. APCNF is best described as:
A. Chemical-intensive farming B. Community-managed natural farming C. Irrigation treaty D. MSP scheme
Answer: B

5. Agroecology means:
A. Ecology-based farming B. Digital currency C. Air defence D. Court reform
Answer: A

Exam Takeaway

APCNF should be studied as a model linking agriculture, environment, climate resilience, women-led collectives and sustainable development.

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APCNF Wins 2026 Food Planet Prize Read More »

BRICS Disaster Risk Reduction Meeting in Puri-Explained

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, International Current Affairs / PSC Chronicles Team

Why in News?

The BRICS Technical Meeting of the Disaster Risk Reduction Working Group commenced in Puri, Odisha, on June 3, 2026, under India’s BRICS Presidency 2026.

The meeting is important for exams because it connects three areas:

International relations: BRICS and Global South cooperation
Disaster management: disaster risk reduction and climate resilience
Governance: Odisha’s disaster management model

Key Facts for Prelims

Point	Exam-Relevant Fact
Event	BRICS Disaster Risk Reduction Working Group technical meeting
Place	Puri, Odisha
Dates	June 3-5, 2026
Hosted under	India’s BRICS Presidency 2026
Main focus	Disaster risk reduction, climate resilience, early warning, resilient infrastructure
Why Odisha?	Known for cyclone preparedness, early warning systems, evacuation planning and disaster response
Static link	Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction 2015-2030

Why the Puri Meeting Matters?

The Puri meeting highlights disaster risk reduction as a major area of BRICS cooperation. This is important because climate change is increasing the frequency and intensity of extreme weather events such as cyclones, floods, heatwaves and droughts.

For India, the meeting is significant because:

India is holding the BRICS Chairship in 2026.
India’s BRICS theme is Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability.
Disaster risk reduction fits directly under the Resilience pillar.
Odisha’s cyclone management model is being showcased internationally.

Odisha Model of Disaster Management

Odisha is frequently cited as an important case study in disaster preparedness because the state has improved its ability to manage cyclones and other natural disasters.

Important features:

Multi-hazard early warning systems
Cyclone shelters and evacuation planning
Community-level preparedness
Coordination between state agencies and local administration
Use of technology for alerts and response
Focus on reducing loss of life during cyclones

What is BRICS?

BRICS is an intergovernmental grouping of major emerging economies. It began as BRIC with Brazil, Russia, India and China. South Africa joined later, making it BRICS.

For exams, BRICS is important because it represents:

Voice of the Global South
Reform of global governance institutions
South-South cooperation
Alternative development finance through the New Development Bank
Cooperation in economy, technology, health, agriculture, climate, disaster management and security

BRICS Membership

The original BRICS members are Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.

Recent expansion added Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, United Arab Emirates and Indonesia.

Institutional Pillars of BRICS

New Development Bank

The New Development Bank was established by BRICS countries. The agreement for establishing the bank was signed during the 6th BRICS Summit in Fortaleza, Brazil, in 2014.

Headquarters: Shanghai, China
Focus: Infrastructure and sustainable development projects
Earlier known as: BRICS Development Bank
Membership: Open beyond BRICS countries
Exam importance: Alternative development finance institution linked to Global South

Contingent Reserve Arrangement

The BRICS Contingent Reserve Arrangement was also signed in Fortaleza, Brazil, in 2014.

Purpose:

Provides financial support during short-term balance of payments pressure
Helps member countries face global liquidity shocks
Acts as a financial safety mechanism

India and BRICS 2026

India is holding the BRICS Chairship in 2026 and will host the 18th BRICS Summit in 2026.

India’s BRICS 2026 theme is Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability.

India’s focus areas include disaster risk reduction, agriculture and food security, health cooperation, energy security, supply chain resilience, innovation and emerging technologies, and reform of global governance institutions.

Interconnected Static Subject: Sendai Framework

The Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction 2015-2030 is a global framework adopted in Sendai, Japan, in 2015.

Its four priorities are:

Understanding disaster risk
Strengthening disaster risk governance
Investing in disaster risk reduction for resilience
Enhancing disaster preparedness for effective response and Build Back Better in recovery

Quick Revision Table

Term	Meaning	Exam Importance
BRICS	Grouping of major emerging economies	Global South, multilateral reform
Puri Meeting	BRICS DRR Working Group technical meeting	Disaster management current affairs
DRR	Disaster Risk Reduction	Reducing disaster risks before disasters occur
Odisha Model	State-level disaster preparedness model	Cyclone management case study
Sendai Framework	Global DRR framework 2015-2030	Four priorities, disaster governance
NDB	BRICS development finance institution	Infrastructure and sustainable development
CRA	BRICS financial safety mechanism	Balance of payments and liquidity support
India BRICS 2026	India’s BRICS Chairship	Resilience, innovation, cooperation, sustainability

Trap / Confusing Points

Confusing Area	Correct Understanding
BRICS vs G7	BRICS represents emerging economies; G7 represents advanced industrial economies
Disaster response vs DRR	Response happens after disaster; DRR focuses on reducing risk before disaster
NDB vs CRA	NDB funds development projects; CRA provides liquidity support
BRICS vs BIMSTEC	BRICS is a global/emerging economy grouping; BIMSTEC is a Bay of Bengal regional grouping
Sendai Framework vs Paris Agreement	Sendai deals with disaster risk reduction; Paris Agreement deals with climate change
Odisha Model	Known mainly for disaster preparedness, early warning and cyclone response
Saudi Arabia in BRICS	Membership/status should be checked with latest official/exam source due to differing reporting

Practice MCQs

1. The BRICS Disaster Risk Reduction Working Group technical meeting in June 2026 was held in which Indian city?

A. Bhubaneswar
B. Puri
C. Visakhapatnam
D. New Delhi

Answer: B. Puri

Explanation: The BRICS Disaster Risk Reduction Working Group technical meeting commenced in Puri, Odisha, on June 3, 2026.

2. The New Development Bank was established by BRICS countries through an agreement signed at which summit?

A. Durban Summit, 2013
B. Fortaleza Summit, 2014
C. Ufa Summit, 2015
D. Goa Summit, 2016

Answer: B. Fortaleza Summit, 2014

Explanation: The agreement establishing the New Development Bank was signed during the 6th BRICS Summit at Fortaleza, Brazil, in 2014.

3. The Sendai Framework is primarily related to:

A. Climate finance
B. Disaster risk reduction
C. Nuclear disarmament
D. Biodiversity conservation

Answer: B. Disaster risk reduction

Explanation: The Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction 2015-2030 provides global priorities for reducing disaster risks and losses.

4. Which of the following best describes the BRICS Contingent Reserve Arrangement?

A. A global environmental treaty
B. A defence cooperation pact
C. A financial safety mechanism for liquidity and balance of payments pressure
D. A permanent BRICS Parliament

Answer: C. A financial safety mechanism for liquidity and balance of payments pressure

Explanation: CRA was created to help BRICS countries manage short-term liquidity and balance of payments pressures.

5. Which Indian state is being highlighted for its disaster management model in connection with the BRICS DRR meeting in Puri?

A. Gujarat
B. Odisha
C. Kerala
D. Maharashtra

Answer: B. Odisha

Explanation: Odisha’s disaster management model, especially cyclone preparedness and early warning, is being showcased during the BRICS DRR meeting.

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Producer Price Index 2026 Explained

Leave a Comment / Indian Polity and Constitution MCQs, Daily Current Affairs, Indian Economy Current Affairs / PSC Chronicles Team

Why in News?

The government has decided to gradually phase out the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) over the next five years and replace it with the Producer Price Index (PPI).

The Producer Price Index 2026 aims to provide a more comprehensive assessment of inflation by covering goods, inputs and services.

What is Producer Price Index (PPI)?

The Producer Price Index (PPI) measures changes in prices received by producers for goods and services at different stages of production. Unlike WPI, it captures price movements across manufacturing inputs, outputs and services, making it a more comprehensive indicator of producer inflation

Components of PPI

The new PPI framework consists of three indices:

Output PPI – Measures prices received by producers for finished goods.
Input PPI – Measures prices paid by producers for raw materials and intermediate goods.
Services PPI – Tracks producer prices in service sectors such as banking, insurance, telecom, railways and aviation.

WPI vs PPI

Feature	WPI	PPI
Coverage	Goods only	Goods and Services
Stage Measured	Wholesale level	Multiple stages of production
Services Included	No	Yes
Input Prices	No	Yes
Inflation Measurement	Limited	More comprehensive
International Practice	Less common	Widely used globally

Significance

The Producer Price Index 2026 aligns India’s inflation measurement system with international standards. By covering services and production inputs, it provides a more realistic picture of cost pressures in the economy. The transition will also help policymakers, businesses and researchers better assess inflation trends and formulate economic policies

Quick Revision points

Topic	Fact
New Inflation Indicator	Producer Price Index (PPI)
Existing Index	Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
Transition Period	5 years
Revised WPI Base Year	2022-23
Previous WPI Base Year	2011-12
PPI Components	Output PPI, Input PPI, Services PPI
Services Covered Initially	Banking, Insurance, Telecom, Railways, Aviation
Key Advantage	Covers both goods and services
WPI Coverage	Goods only
Nodal Department	DPIIT

Practice MCQs

Q1. Which index is proposed to replace the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India?

a) CPI
b) GDP Deflator
c) Producer Price Index
d) Industrial Production Index

Answer: (c) Producer Price Index — PPI will gradually replace WPI over five years.

Q2. The revised WPI series released by DPIIT uses which base year?

a) 2011-12
b) 2017-18
c) 2020-21
d) 2022-23

Answer: (d) 2022-23 — The revised WPI adopts 2022-23 as the new base year.

Q3. Which of the following is NOT a component of the new PPI framework?

a) Output PPI
b) Input PPI
c) Services PPI
d) Consumer PPI

Answer: (d) Consumer PPI — The new framework includes Output, Input and Services PPI.

Q4. A major advantage of PPI over WPI is that it includes:

a) Retail prices only
b) International trade data
c) Goods and services prices
d) Consumer expenditure data

Answer: (c) Goods and services prices — PPI provides broader coverage than WPI.

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Rudram II Missile successfully testfired

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, Defence Current Affairs / PSC Chronicles Team

Why in News?

DRDO and the Indian Air Force (IAF) successfully conducted flight tests of the RudraM-II air-to-surface missile.

The RudraM-II Missile Test 2026 demonstrated the missile’s capability to engage enemy targets from long stand-off distances. The indigenous weapon system is designed to strengthen India’s suppression of enemy air defence capabilities.

What is RudraM-II Missile?

RudraM-II is an indigenous air-to-surface anti-radiation missile developed by DRDO for the Indian Air Force.

Key features include:

Designed to detect and destroy enemy radar emissions.
Capable of striking targets at distances of 300–350 km.
Travels at hypersonic speeds up to Mach 5.5.
Can carry warheads weighing up to 200 kg.
Launched from fighter aircraft against high-value enemy assets.

What is an Anti-Radiation Missile?

An anti-radiation missile (ARM) is a precision-guided weapon designed to locate and destroy enemy radar systems, air defence networks, communication stations and electronic emitters.

Such missiles play a crucial role in Suppression of Enemy Air Defences (SEAD) missions by neutralizing radar-guided threats before air operations.

Quick Revision Points-RudraM-II Missile

Topic	Fact
Missile Name	RudraM-II
Developed By	DRDO
Service User	Indian Air Force (IAF)
Missile Type	Air-to-Surface Anti-Radiation Missile
Maximum Speed	Mach 5.5
Strike Range	300–350 km
Payload Capacity	Up to 200 kg
Primary Role	Destruction of enemy radar systems
Warfare Domain	Suppression of Enemy Air Defences (SEAD)

Practice MCQs on Rudram II missile:

Q1. RudraM-II is classified as which type of missile?

a) Surface-to-air missile
b) Ballistic missile
c) Air-to-surface anti-radiation missile
d) Anti-tank missile

Answer: (c) Air-to-surface anti-radiation missile — It is designed to destroy radar-emitting targets.

Q2. What is the approximate strike range of RudraM-II?

a) 100 km
b) 200 km
c) 300–350 km
d) 500 km

Answer: (c) 300–350 km — The missile can engage targets from stand-off distances.

Q3. RudraM-II has been developed by which organisation?

a) HAL
b) ISRO
c) BEL
d) DRDO

Answer: (d) DRDO — The missile is an indigenous DRDO-developed weapon system.

Q4. The primary purpose of an anti-radiation missile is to destroy:

a) Tanks
b) Aircraft carriers
c) Radar and electronic emitters
d) Submarines

Answer: (c) Radar and electronic emitters — Anti-radiation missiles target radar signals and air defence systems.

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