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Index of Services Production (ISP): 5 Critical UPSC Facts

Why in News?

The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) released trial data for the Index of Services Production (ISP), India’s first high-frequency macroeconomic indicator to measure the performance of the formal services sector. The trial ISP covers 19 sub-sectors, together accounting for nearly 60% of India’s total services output.

Key Facts for Prelims: Index of Services Production (ISP)

Released by: National Statistical Office (NSO), under MoSPI
Nature: Monthly, high-frequency macroeconomic indicator
Base Year: 2024-25
Coverage: 19 sub-sectors of the formal services sector, accounting for ~60% of total services output
Compilation Formula: Fixed-weight Laspeyres volume index
Weights: Based on sectoral contribution to Gross Value Added (GVA)
Highest-weight sub-sector: IT services (22.47%), followed by retail trade (16.4%)
Data Sources: Administrative data (air transport, railways, banking, insurance); GST outward-supply data (bulk of market services); ASISSE survey (health and education, to be added later)
Release Lag: ~60 days, on the 29th of every month
TAC-ISP Chair: Ms. Debjani Ghosh, Distinguished Fellow, NITI Aayog

Static Exam Link: ISP vs Index of Industrial Production (IIP)

The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) measures short-term output only of the industrial sector (mining, manufacturing, electricity) and has no counterpart for services. Since the services sector contributes over 50% of India’s Gross Value Added (about 52.9% in 2024-25) and nearly 30% of employment, the absence of a similar short-term services indicator was a long-standing statistical gap. The ISP fills this gap and complements the IIP for full-economy monitoring.

ISP excludes: Public administration and defence, non-market financial services, personal services, government-run health/education, and gambling activities
ISP is formal-sector only: It draws on GST outward-supply data, so informal/unregistered services are not captured
Deflators used: WPI for wholesale trade; sector-specific CPI where available; general CPI for banking, insurance and other services
Quantity-based sub-sectors: Only Air Transport and Railways (measured in physical units, e.g., passenger-km); all others are value-based

Quick Revision Table: Index of Services Production

Parameter	Detail
Released By	NSO, MoSPI
Base Year	2024-25
Sub-sectors Covered	19 (nearly 60% of services output)
Compilation Method	Fixed-weight Laspeyres volume index
Counterpart Index	IIP (Index of Industrial Production)
Highest Weight Sub-sector	IT services (22.47%)
TAC-ISP Chairperson	Debjani Ghosh, NITI Aayog
Data Sources	Administrative data, GST, ASISSE

Trap / Confusing Points

Confusion	Correct Fact
ISP covers the entire services sector	ISP covers only 19 sub-sectors (~60%) of the formal services sector; informal and several non-market activities are excluded
ISP and IIP are compiled the same way	IIP uses physical production quantities; ISP is mostly value-based (GST/turnover), deflated to real output, except Air Transport and Railways which are quantity-based
Health and education are covered in ISP now	These two sub-sectors will be added later, based on ASISSE survey results, not GST data
Retail trade has the highest weight in ISP	IT services (22.47%) has the highest weight, ahead of retail trade (16.4%)

Practice MCQs

1. The Index of Services Production (ISP) has been launched by which organisation?

a. RBI
b. NITI Aayog
c. National Statistical Office (NSO), MoSPI
d. Department of Economic Affairs

Ans: C
The ISP is compiled and released by the National Statistical Office under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.

2. What is the base year of the Index of Services Production?

a. 2011-12
b. 2022-23
c. 2023-24
d. 2024-25

Ans: D
The ISP uses 2024-25 as its base year, aligned with the base year of the revised CPI series.

3. The Index of Services Production is best described as a short-term counterpart of which index?

a. Consumer Price Index (CPI)
b. Index of Industrial Production (IIP)
c. Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
d. Human Development Index (HDI)

Ans: B
ISP complements the IIP, which measures only industrial output, by tracking short-term services sector performance.

4. Which sub-sector carries the highest weight in the trial Index of Services Production?

a. Retail trade
b. Accommodation and food services
c. IT services
d. Real estate

Ans: C
IT services has the highest weight at 22.47%, ahead of retail trade at 16.4%.

5. Which formula is used to compile the Index of Services Production?

a. Paasche price index
b. Fisher’s ideal index
c. Fixed-weight Laspeyres volume index
d. Chain-weighted index

Ans: C
ISP is compiled as a fixed-weight Laspeyres volume index, with weights based on sectoral GVA contribution.

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TRISHNA Mission: India-France Satellite to Launch in 2027

Leave a Comment / Indian Polity and Constitution MCQs / PSC Chronicles Team

Why in News?

The Prime Minister announced that India and France will jointly launch the TRISHNA satellite mission. Developed jointly by ISRO and France’s national space agency CNES, this Earth-observation satellite is designed to address global challenges in water resource management, climate monitoring, and food security.

Key Facts for Prelims: TRISHNA Mission

Full Form: Thermal infraRed Imaging Satellite for High-resolution Natural Resource Assessment
Developed by: ISRO (India) and CNES (France)
Launch Timeline: Planned for 2027
Primary Target: High-resolution tracking of Earth’s surface temperature, vegetation health, and water cycle dynamics
Operational Lifespan: Minimum baseline mission of 5 years
Orbit Type: Sun-synchronous orbit
ISRO’s Role: Provides the satellite platform and the Visible-Near Infrared-Short Wave Infrared (VNIR-SWIR) payload; acts as prime contractor
CNES’s Role: Co-responsible for the mission; provides the Thermal Infra-Red (TIR) payload

Static Exam Link: India-France Space Cooperation

CNES (Centre National d’Études Spatiales) is France’s national space agency, functioning as a counterpart to ISRO. TRISHNA is a flagship example of bilateral Earth-observation cooperation, distinct from India’s joint missions with other partners such as NISAR (India-USA, with NASA), which is a synthetic aperture radar mission rather than a thermal-infrared mission.

TRISHNA payload combines thermal infrared (TIR) and VNIR-SWIR imaging, unlike radar-based missions
Focus areas: evapotranspiration monitoring, surface energy budgeting, and climate change impact assessment

Quick Revision Table: TRISHNA at a Glance

Parameter	Detail
Full Form	Thermal infraRed Imaging Satellite for High-resolution Natural Resource Assessment
Partner Agencies	ISRO (India) & CNES (France)
Planned Launch	2027
Mission Life	Minimum 5 years
Orbit	Sun-synchronous
Key Focus	Water resource management, climate monitoring, food security

Trap / Confusing Points

Confusion	Correct Fact
TRISHNA vs NISAR	TRISHNA is an ISRO-CNES (France) thermal imaging mission; NISAR is an ISRO-NASA (USA) radar mission
CNES is a company	CNES is France’s national space agency, not a private company
TRISHNA studies only temperature	It also monitors vegetation health and water cycle dynamics, not temperature alone
ISRO provides thermal payload	CNES provides the Thermal Infra-Red payload; ISRO provides the VNIR-SWIR payload

Practice MCQs

1. TRISHNA is a joint satellite mission between ISRO and which agency?

a. NASA
b. CNES
c. ESA
d. JAXA

Ans: B
TRISHNA is jointly developed by ISRO and CNES, France’s national space agency.

2. What does the “T” in TRISHNA stand for?

a. Temperature
b. Thermal
c. Tropical
d. Terrestrial

Ans: B
TRISHNA stands for Thermal infraRed Imaging Satellite for High-resolution Natural Resource Assessment.

3. Which of the following is a primary focus area of the TRISHNA mission?

a. Deep space exploration
b. Water resource management and food security
c. Lunar mineral mapping
d. Communication relay

Ans: B
TRISHNA addresses water resource management, climate monitoring, and food security challenges.

4. What is the minimum planned operational lifespan of the TRISHNA satellite?

a. 2 years
b. 5 years
c. 8 years
d. 10 years

Ans: B
TRISHNA is designed for a minimum baseline mission life of 5 years.

5. In the TRISHNA mission, ISRO is primarily responsible for which payload?

a. Thermal Infra-Red (TIR) payload
b. VNIR-SWIR payload
c. Synthetic Aperture Radar
d. Laser altimeter

Ans: B
ISRO provides the platform and the Visible-Near Infrared-Short Wave Infrared (VNIR-SWIR) payload; CNES provides the Thermal Infra-Red payload.

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MP to Send Tigers and Gaurs to Andhra Pradesh: Gundla Brahmeswaram Sanctuary

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, Andhra Pradesh Current Affairs, Environment and Ecology Current Affairs, National Current Affairs / PSC Chronicles Team

Why in News?

Madhya Pradesh has agreed to provide tigers and Indian bison (gaurs) to Andhra Pradesh. AP plans to reintroduce 25–30 gaurs into the Gundla Brahmeswaram Wildlife Sanctuary in the Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve (NSTR).

Key Facts for Prelims

Madhya Pradesh & Tiger Census

MP had 785 tigers as per the 2022 All India Tiger Estimation — highest tiger population of any state

Gundla Brahmeswaram (GBM) Wildlife Sanctuary

Location: Nallamala Hills, Eastern Ghats — Kurnool and Prakasam districts, Andhra Pradesh
Hill Passes: Between Mantralamma Kanuma and Nandi Kanuma
River: Gundlakamma River — perennial water source
Endemic Species: Lesser Woolly Horseshoe Bat — found only in this region
Part of: Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve (NSTR)

Quick Revision Table

Parameter	Detail
State with highest tigers (2022)	Madhya Pradesh (785 tigers)
Sanctuary	Gundla Brahmeswaram Wildlife Sanctuary
Location	Nallamala Hills, Eastern Ghats (Kurnool & Prakasam, AP)
Tiger Reserve	Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve (NSTR)
River	Gundlakamma River
Endemic species	Lesser Woolly Horseshoe Bat
Animals to be reintroduced	25–30 gaurs (Indian bison)

Trap / Confusing Points

Confusion	Correct Fact
Gaur = American Bison	Gaur is the Indian Bison — different from American bison
GBM is in Telangana	GBM is in Andhra Pradesh (Kurnool and Prakasam districts)
NSTR is only in AP	NSTR spans both Andhra Pradesh and Telangana
MP has 500 tigers (2022 census)	MP had 785 tigers in 2022 — highest in India
GBM is in Western Ghats	GBM is in the Eastern Ghats (Nallamala Hills)

Practice MCQs

1. As per 2022 tiger estimation, which state has the highest tiger population?

a. Uttarakhand
b. Karnataka
c. Madhya Pradesh
d. Maharashtra

Ans: C
Madhya Pradesh had 785 tigers in the 2022 census — highest for any state.

2. Gundla Brahmeswaram Wildlife Sanctuary is part of which tiger reserve?

a. Amrabad Tiger Reserve
b. Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
c. Satpura Tiger Reserve
d. Simlipal Tiger Reserve

Ans: B
GBM Wildlife Sanctuary lies within the Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve (NSTR).

3. GBM Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which hill range?

a. Shevaroy Hills
b. Cardamom Hills
c. Nallamala Hills
d. Papi Hills

Ans: C
GBM is in the Nallamallai Hill ranges of the Eastern Ghats in Kurnool and Prakasam districts of AP.

4. The endemic species uniquely found in GBM Wildlife Sanctuary?

a. Indian Star Tortoise
b. Lesser Woolly Horseshoe Bat
c. Slender Loris
d. Indian Giant Squirrel

Ans: B
The Lesser Woolly Horseshoe Bat is a rare mammal found only in the Gundla Brahmeswaram region.

5. Which river provides a perennial water source in GBM Wildlife Sanctuary?

a. Krishna River
b. Tungabhadra River
c. Gundlakamma River
d. Penna River

Ans: C
The Gundlakamma River is a perennial water source crisscrossing the sanctuary.

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MP to Send Tigers and Gaurs to Andhra Pradesh: Gundla Brahmeswaram Sanctuary Read More »

World Day to Combat Desertification and Drought: June 17

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, Environment and Ecology Current Affairs, National Current Affairs / PSC Chronicles Team

Why in News?

The World Day to Combat Desertification and Drought is observed globally on June 17 every year. The day commemorates the adoption of the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD).

Key Facts for Prelims: UNCCD

Origin: Conceived at the 1992 Rio Earth Summit (UNCED)
Formally Adopted: 1994 in Paris
Came into Force: 1996
Significance: The only legally binding international agreement linking environmental conservation directly to sustainable land management
Focus: Addresses desertification, land degradation, and drought (DLDD)
India’s Target: Restore 26 million hectares of degraded land by 2030 — Land Degradation Neutrality (LDN)

The Three Rio Conventions (1992)

Convention	Focus	Adopted	In Force
UNCCD	Desertification, Land Degradation, Drought	1994	1996
UNFCCC	Climate Change	1992	1994
CBD	Biodiversity Conservation	1992	1993

Trap / Confusing Points

Confusion	Correct Fact
UNCCD was adopted at Rio 1992	UNCCD was conceived at Rio 1992 but formally adopted in 1994 in Paris
Desertification Day is June 5	June 5 = World Environment Day; June 17 = Desertification and Drought Day
UNCCD focuses on climate change	UNCCD focuses on desertification, land degradation, drought; UNFCCC handles climate change
India targets 30 million ha restoration	India’s target is 26 million hectares by 2030

Practice MCQs

1. World Day to Combat Desertification and Drought is observed on which date?

a. June 5
b. June 8
c. June 17
d. June 21

Ans: C
June 17 commemorates the adoption of UNCCD.

2. UNCCD was formally adopted in which year and city?

a. 1992, Rio de Janeiro
b. 1994, Paris
c. 1996, New York
d. 2000, Bonn

Ans: B
UNCCD was formally adopted in 1994 in Paris.

3. UNCCD is the only legally binding agreement linking environmental conservation to?

a. Renewable energy targets
b. Sustainable land management
c. Marine biodiversity protection
d. Climate financing

Ans: B
UNCCD uniquely links environmental conservation to sustainable land management.

4. India’s target for restoration of degraded land under LDN?

a. 15 million hectares
b. 20 million hectares
c. 26 million hectares
d. 30 million hectares

Ans: C
India committed to restoring 26 million hectares of degraded land by 2030.

5. Which Rio Convention focuses on desertification and land degradation?

a. UNFCCC
b. CBD
c. UNCCD
d. Ramsar Convention

Ans: C
UNCCD specifically addresses desertification, land degradation, and drought.

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World Day to Combat Desertification and Drought: June 17 Read More »

PSS Procurement of Pulses and Oilseeds in 4 States: PM-AASHA | UPSC Notes

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, Indian Economy Current Affairs, National Current Affairs / PSC Chronicles Team

Why in News?

The Centre approved large-scale procurement of pulses and oilseeds at MSP under the Price Support Scheme (PSS) in four states: Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, and Haryana.

Key Facts for Prelims: MSP & PM-AASHA

Minimum Support Price (MSP)

MSP is the guaranteed rate at which the government buys crops from farmers
Recommending body: Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) under Ministry of Agriculture
Approving body: Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), chaired by PM
MSP is announced for 22 mandated crops (14 Kharif + 6 Rabi + 2 commercial) + FRP for sugarcane

PM-AASHA

Type: Central Sector Umbrella Scheme
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare

PM-AASHA’s Three Components

Component	Mechanism	Crops
Price Support Scheme (PSS)	Physical procurement at MSP	Pulses, Oilseeds, Copra
Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS)	DBT cash transfer of MSP-market price gap	Oilseeds
Private Procurement & Stockist Scheme (PPSS)	Private stockists procure oilseeds at MSP — pilot basis	Oilseeds (selected districts)

Trap / Confusing Points

Confusion	Correct Fact
CACP approves MSP	CACP only recommends; CCEA approves
MSP covers all crops	MSP for 22 mandated crops + FRP for sugarcane only
PM-AASHA is under Ministry of Finance	PM-AASHA is under Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
PDPS is physical procurement	PDPS is a cash transfer (DBT) — no physical procurement
PSS covers all crops	PSS covers only pulses, oilseeds, and copra

Practice MCQs

1. Which body recommends MSP for crops?

a. CCEA
b. NITI Aayog
c. Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)
d. FCI

Ans: C
CACP recommends MSP; CCEA chaired by PM gives final approval.

2. MSP is announced for how many mandated crops?

a. 14
b. 18
c. 22
d. 26

Ans: C
MSP is announced for 22 mandated crops (14 Kharif + 6 Rabi + 2 commercial) plus FRP for sugarcane.

3. Which PM-AASHA component involves direct cash transfer to farmers?

a. PSS
b. PDPS
c. PPSS
d. Market Intervention Scheme

Ans: B
PDPS covers the deficit between MSP and market price via DBT.

4. PSS procurement was recently approved for which four states?

a. TN, Gujarat, UP, Haryana
b. MP, Rajasthan, Punjab, Maharashtra
c. Bihar, Odisha, Karnataka, AP
d. Telangana, WB, Kerala, Assam

Ans: A
PSS procurement approved in Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, and Haryana.

5. PM-AASHA is classified as which type of scheme?

a. Centrally Sponsored Scheme
b. State Sector Scheme
c. Central Sector Umbrella Scheme
d. PPP Scheme

Ans: C
PM-AASHA is a Central Sector Umbrella Scheme under Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

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PSS Procurement of Pulses and Oilseeds in 4 States: PM-AASHA | UPSC Notes Read More »

Cabinet Approves ₹37,500 Crore Coal/Lignite Gasification Scheme | UPSC Notes

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, Indian Economy Current Affairs, National Current Affairs / PSC Chronicles Team

Why in News?

The Union Cabinet approved a Scheme for Promotion of Surface Coal/Lignite Gasification Projects with a financial outlay of ₹37,500 crore. The scheme targets gasification of 100 Million Tonnes (MT) of coal by 2030.

Key Facts for Prelims

Financial Outlay: ₹37,500 crore
National Target: Gasify 100 MT of coal by 2030
Product: Syngas (synthesis gas) — versatile feedstock for fuels and chemicals
India’s Coal Reserves: ~401 billion tonnes (one of world’s largest)
India’s Lignite Reserves: ~47 billion tonnes
Coal’s share in India’s energy mix: Over 55%

Why Coal Gasification? Import Substitution

Product	Current Import Dependence
LNG	More than 50% imported
Urea	~20% imported
Ammonia	~100% imported
Methanol	~80–90% imported

Trap / Confusing Points

Confusion	Correct Fact
Gasification = combustion of coal	Gasification converts coal to syngas — a chemical process, not direct combustion
Target is 100 MT by 2025	Target is 100 MT by 2030
Coal’s share in energy is 30%	Coal accounts for over 55% of India’s energy mix
India has limited coal reserves	India has ~401 billion tonnes — one of the world’s largest

Practice MCQs

1. Financial outlay of the Coal/Lignite Gasification Promotion Scheme?

a. ₹15,000 crore
b. ₹25,000 crore
c. ₹37,500 crore
d. ₹50,000 crore

Ans: C
The Cabinet approved the scheme with a financial outlay of ₹37,500 crore.

2. Coal gasification primarily produces?

a. CNG
b. Synthesis gas (Syngas)
c. LPG
d. Coal Tar

Ans: B
Gasification converts coal/lignite into syngas — a versatile feedstock for fuels and chemicals.

3. India’s national target for coal gasification by 2030?

a. 50 MT
b. 75 MT
c. 100 MT
d. 150 MT

Ans: C
India’s target is gasifying 100 MT of coal by 2030.

4. Coal’s share in India’s energy mix?

a. Over 30%
b. Over 40%
c. Over 55%
d. Over 70%

Ans: C
Coal accounts for over 55% of India’s energy mix.

5. Which import product is currently ~100% imported and can be substituted by coal gasification?

a. LNG
b. Methanol
c. Ammonia
d. Urea

Ans: C
India imports ~100% of its ammonia. Domestic syngas production can address this dependency.

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Cabinet Approves ₹37,500 Crore Coal/Lignite Gasification Scheme | UPSC Notes Read More »

Bimal N. Patel Elected ITLOS Judge: India at UNCLOS Tribunal | UPSC Notes

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, International Current Affairs, National Current Affairs / PSC Chronicles Team

Why in News?

India’s Professor Bimal N. Patel has been elected as a Judge of the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS) for the 2026–2035 term. His election took place during the 36th Meeting of States Parties to UNCLOS at the UN Headquarters, New York.

Key Facts for Prelims: ITLOS & UNCLOS

UNCLOS: United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea — adopted in 1982
UNCLOS establishes the comprehensive legal framework for all marine and maritime activities
ITLOS: Dispute-settlement body established under UNCLOS for resolving maritime disputes
The 36th Meeting was held at UN Headquarters, New York

UNCLOS Maritime Zones: Quick Revision Table

Maritime Zone	Extent from Baseline	Coastal State Rights
Internal Waters	Landward side of baseline	Full sovereignty
Territorial Sea	Up to 12 NM	Full sovereignty; innocent passage allowed
Contiguous Zone	12–24 NM	Enforcement of customs, immigration, fiscal, sanitary laws
Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)	Up to 200 NM	Sovereign rights over resources
Continental Shelf	Up to 200 NM (extendable to 350 NM)	Rights over seabed and subsoil resources
High Seas	Beyond national jurisdiction	Freedom of navigation for all states

Trap / Confusing Points

Confusion	Correct Fact
UNCLOS was adopted in 1972	UNCLOS was adopted in 1982
EEZ extends to 350 NM	EEZ = 200 NM; Continental Shelf can extend to 350 NM
Contiguous Zone = 12 NM	Contiguous Zone is from 12 to 24 NM
Innocent passage is in EEZ	Innocent passage applies in Territorial Sea (12 NM)

Practice MCQs

1. UNCLOS was adopted in which year?

a. 1972
b. 1982
c. 1992
d. 2002

Ans: B
UNCLOS was adopted in 1982 and came into force in 1994.

2. EEZ under UNCLOS extends up to how many nautical miles?

a. 12 NM
b. 24 NM
c. 200 NM
d. 350 NM

Ans: C
The EEZ extends up to 200 NM with sovereign rights over natural resources.

3. Bimal N. Patel was elected to ITLOS during the meeting of which body?

a. UN Security Council
b. 36th Meeting of States Parties to UNCLOS
c. International Court of Justice
d. G20 Legal Forum

Ans: B
His election occurred at the 36th Meeting of States Parties to UNCLOS, UN Headquarters, New York.

4. In which maritime zone can a coastal state enforce customs and immigration laws?

a. Internal Waters
b. Territorial Sea
c. Contiguous Zone
d. EEZ

Ans: C
The Contiguous Zone (12–24 NM) allows enforcement of customs, immigration, fiscal, and sanitary laws.

5. Continental Shelf under UNCLOS can be extended up to how many nautical miles?

a. 200 NM
b. 250 NM
c. 350 NM
d. 400 NM

Ans: C
Continental Shelf can be extended to 350 NM in certain geological conditions.

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Bimal N. Patel Elected ITLOS Judge: India at UNCLOS Tribunal | UPSC Notes Read More »

Ladakh to Get Article 371-Like Constitutional Safeguards | UPSC Notes

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, National Current Affairs, Polity Current Affairs / PSC Chronicles Team

Why in News?

Leaders of Ladakh and the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) reached an in-principle agreement on providing constitutional safeguards on the lines of Articles 371A, 371F, and 371G to the Union Territory of Ladakh — similar to protections for Nagaland, Sikkim, and Mizoram.

Key Facts for Prelims

Articles 371 to 371J are in Part XXI of the Indian Constitution
Part XXI is titled: “Temporary, Transitional, and Special Provisions”
These provisions apply to 12 specific states
Ladakh seeks safeguards on lines of: 371A (Nagaland), 371F (Sikkim), 371G (Mizoram)

Quick Revision Table: Articles 371 to 371J

Article	State	Key Provision
371	Maharashtra & Gujarat	Development boards for backward regions (Vidarbha, Marathwada, Saurashtra, Kutch)
371A	Nagaland	Parliament cannot legislate on Naga customary laws, land rights without State Assembly approval
371B	Assam	Special committee for Tribal Area members in State Assembly
371C	Manipur	Hill Areas Committee; Governor’s special responsibility for hill areas
371D	Andhra Pradesh & Telangana	Equitable public employment and education; local cadre reservations
371E	Andhra Pradesh	Central University establishment
371F	Sikkim	Protection of existing laws and rights after integration with India
371G	Mizoram	Parliament cannot legislate on Mizo customary laws/land without State Assembly approval
371H	Arunachal Pradesh	Governor’s special responsibility for law and order
371I	Goa	Legislature not less than 30 members
371J	Karnataka	Special provisions for Kalyana Karnataka (Hyderabad-Karnataka) region

Trap / Confusing Points

Confusion	Correct Fact
Article 371A applies to Mizoram	371A → Nagaland; 371G → Mizoram
Part XXI is permanent provisions	Part XXI = “Temporary, Transitional, and Special Provisions”
371J is for Assam	371J is for Karnataka (Kalyana Karnataka)
371B is for Manipur	371B → Assam; 371C → Manipur
371D applies to AP only	371D covers both Andhra Pradesh and Telangana

Practice MCQs

1. Articles 371 to 371J are in which Part of the Constitution?

a. Part XVIII
b. Part XIX
c. Part XX
d. Part XXI

Ans: D
Articles 371–371J are in Part XXI: “Temporary, Transitional, and Special Provisions.”

2. Under which article is Parliament restricted from legislating on Naga customary laws?

a. Article 371
b. Article 371A
c. Article 371G
d. Article 371H

Ans: B
Article 371A provides special protections to Nagaland regarding customary law and land rights.

3. Ladakh seeks safeguards like Articles 371A, 371F, and 371G applicable to which states respectively?

a. Assam, Mizoram, Nagaland
b. Nagaland, Sikkim, Mizoram
c. Manipur, Goa, Arunachal Pradesh
d. Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram

Ans: B
371A → Nagaland, 371F → Sikkim, 371G → Mizoram.

4. Article 371J provides special provisions for which region of Karnataka?

a. Kodagu region
b. Coastal Karnataka
c. Kalyana Karnataka (Hyderabad-Karnataka)
d. Malnad region

Ans: C
Article 371J covers the Kalyana Karnataka (formerly Hyderabad-Karnataka) region.

5. Which article provides for a special committee of the Assam Legislative Assembly for tribal area members?

a. Article 371A
b. Article 371B
c. Article 371C
d. Article 371D

Ans: B
Article 371B provides a special committee in the Assam Legislative Assembly for tribal area members.

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Ladakh to Get Article 371-Like Constitutional Safeguards | UPSC Notes Read More »

Tushar Mehta Reappointed Solicitor General of India for 3 Years | UPSC Notes

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, National Current Affairs, Polity Current Affairs / PSC Chronicles Team

Why in News?

The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) approved the reappointment of Tushar Mehta as Solicitor General of India (SGI) for a further term of three years from July 1.

Key Facts for Prelims: Solicitor General of India

Position: Second-highest law officer of India (after Attorney General)
Constitutional Status: NOT mentioned in the Constitution (unlike AG under Article 76)
Governed by: Law Officers (Conditions of Service) Rules, 1987
Appointed by: Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC)
Tenure: Fixed three years, renewable
Parliamentary Rights: SGI does NOT have the right to participate in parliamentary proceedings

Attorney General vs Solicitor General

Feature	Attorney General (AGI)	Solicitor General (SGI)
Constitutional Status	Created under Article 76	Not in Constitution — statutory post
Parliamentary Rights	Can speak in both Houses (Article 88), no vote	No parliamentary rights
Tenure	At President’s pleasure — no fixed term	Fixed 3-year term
Removal	By President at any time	Under statutory executive rules
Rank	Highest law officer	Second-highest law officer

Trap / Confusing Points

Confusion	Correct Fact
SGI is a constitutional post	SGI is statutory — NOT in the Constitution
SGI can address Parliament	Only Attorney General has parliamentary rights (Article 88)
AGI has a fixed 3-year term	AGI serves at President’s pleasure; SGI has fixed 3-year term
ACC is chaired by Home Minister	ACC is chaired by the Prime Minister

Practice MCQs

1. The Solicitor General of India is the _____ highest law officer.

a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. Fourth

Ans: B
SGI is the second-highest law officer, directly subordinate to the Attorney General.

2. The SGI post is governed by which rules?

a. Article 76
b. Article 88
c. Law Officers (Conditions of Service) Rules, 1987
d. Supreme Court Rules, 2013

Ans: C
SGI is governed by Law Officers (Conditions of Service) Rules, 1987.

3. Which body approved Tushar Mehta’s reappointment?

a. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
b. Appointments Committee of the Cabinet
c. Supreme Court Collegium
d. UPSC

Ans: B
ACC approved the reappointment for a further three-year term.

4. AG’s right to participate in Parliament is under which article?

a. Article 76
b. Article 79
c. Article 88
d. Article 124

Ans: C
Article 88 grants the AG right to speak in both Houses (without voting rights).

5. Standard tenure of the Solicitor General?

a. At President’s pleasure
b. Five years
c. Three years
d. Two years

Ans: C
SGI is appointed for a fixed 3-year term by ACC.

To learn current affairs from exam point of view, Click here.

To know more about law officers of India, Click here.

Tushar Mehta Reappointed Solicitor General of India for 3 Years | UPSC Notes Read More »

Kudankulam Nuclear Plant: Reactor Pressure Vessel Installed in Unit-5 | UPSC Notes

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, National Current Affairs, Science and Technology Current Affairs / PSC Chronicles Team

Why in News?

Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL) achieved a major milestone at Kudankulam Nuclear Power Project (KKNPP) with the successful installation of the Reactor Pressure Vessel (RPV) in Unit-5.

Key Facts for Prelims

Location: Tamil Nadu — India’s largest nuclear power station
Developed by: NPCIL + Atomstroyexport (engineering wing of Russia’s Rosatom)
Total Capacity: 6,000 MWe (6 units × 1,000 MWe)
Reactor Type: Russian VVER-1000 (Pressurized Water Reactor)
Fuel: Enriched uranium (unlike India’s PHWRs which use natural uranium)
Coolant/Moderator: Light water

KKNPP vs India’s Indigenous Nuclear Fleet

Feature	KKNPP (Russian)	India’s Indigenous Fleet
Reactor Type	VVER-1000 (PWR)	Pressurized Heavy Water Reactor (PHWR)
Fuel	Enriched Uranium	Natural Uranium
Coolant/Moderator	Light Water	Heavy Water (D₂O)
Partner	Rosatom (Russia)	Indigenous (NPCIL)

Trap / Confusing Points

Confusion	Correct Fact
KKNPP uses natural uranium	KKNPP uses enriched uranium
KKNPP is in Andhra Pradesh	KKNPP is in Tamil Nadu
Rosatom directly operates KKNPP	NPCIL operates; Rosatom/Atomstroyexport is partner/builder
KKNPP has 4 units	Designed for 6 units (6,000 MWe total)

Practice MCQs

1. Kudankulam Nuclear Power Project is in which state?

a. Andhra Pradesh
b. Karnataka
c. Tamil Nadu
d. Kerala

Ans: C
KKNPP is in Tamil Nadu — India’s largest nuclear power station.

2. KKNPP uses which reactor technology?

a. PHWR
b. VVER-1000 (PWR)
c. BWR
d. Fast Breeder Reactor

Ans: B
KKNPP uses Russian VVER-1000 with light water as coolant and moderator.

3. KKNPP is partnered with which Russian organization?

a. Roscosmos
b. Rosoboronexport
c. Atomstroyexport (Rosatom)
d. Gazprom

Ans: C
Jointly developed by NPCIL and Atomstroyexport, the engineering wing of Rosatom.

4. Total planned capacity of KKNPP?

a. 2,000 MWe
b. 4,000 MWe
c. 5,000 MWe
d. 6,000 MWe

Ans: D
6,000 MWe across 6 units of 1,000 MWe each.

5. Recent milestone at Kudankulam Unit-5 was installation of?

a. Steam Generator
b. Reactor Pressure Vessel (RPV)
c. Turbine Hall
d. Containment Dome

Ans: B
NPCIL successfully installed the Reactor Pressure Vessel (RPV) in Unit-5.

To learn current affairs from exam point of view, Click here.

To know more about KKNPP, Click here.

Kudankulam Nuclear Plant: Reactor Pressure Vessel Installed in Unit-5 | UPSC Notes Read More »