APPSC Group-1 2023 Polity Previous Year Questions

Ans: (3) I and II (as per APPSC official final key)

The 73rd and 74th Amendments (1992) gave constitutional status to Panchayats and Municipalities. To give them a sound financial base, Article 243-I requires the Governor to constitute a State Finance Commission within one year of the 73rd Amendment and thereafter every five years. Article 243-Y applies the same commission to Municipalities.

The commission reviews the finances of local bodies and recommends the sharing of state taxes, the taxes, duties, tolls and fees to be assigned to them, and grants-in-aid. So statements I and II are correct. Statement III is wrong because the finance commission for Panchayats is under Article 243-I, not Article 243 (which only gives definitions).

Note:

• Its report is laid before the State Legislature with an action-taken memorandum.
• Article 280(3)(bb)/(c): the Central Finance Commission suggests measures to augment state Consolidated Funds for local bodies.

Ans: Question deleted by APPSC (official final key; no option is treated as correct)

This question was deleted by APPSC in the official final key, so no option is scored as correct. The concept is still useful:

• 77th Amendment (1995) inserted Article 16(4A): reservation in promotions for SCs and STs.
• 81st Amendment (2000) inserted Article 16(4B): unfilled reserved vacancies (backlog) can be carried forward, outside the 50% ceiling.
• 82nd Amendment (2000) added a proviso to Article 335 allowing relaxation of qualifying marks for SC/ST in promotions.

All three deal with jobs (promotions), not admissions. Reservation in admissions came with the 93rd Amendment (2005), Article 15(5), and the 103rd (2019) for EWS.

Note:

• 85th Amendment (2001): consequential seniority in promotions.
• First Amendment (1951) inserted Article 15(4).

Ans: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (as per APPSC official final key)

Article 53(1) says: “The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with this Constitution.” So the President is the formal head of the executive, and the Reason is the exact constitutional basis of the Assertion. Both are true and R explains A.

In practice, under Article 74, the President acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister (made binding by the 42nd Amendment, 1976). So the President is the nominal executive and the PM is the real executive.

Note:

• Article 52: there shall be a President of India.
• Article 154: executive power of the State vested in the Governor.

Ans: (3) I, III, IV and V (as per APPSC official final key)

The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up in 1985 under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, made under Article 323-A (added by the 42nd Amendment, 1976). So it is a statutory body.

It deals with recruitment and service matters of All-India services, Central civil services and Central Government posts. It is not bound by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908; it follows the principles of natural justice. Its members are drawn from both judicial and administrative backgrounds, so statement II is wrong. So I, III, IV and V.

Note:

• CAT has a Principal Bench at Delhi and benches across the country.
• Appeals from CAT go to the High Court (L. Chandra Kumar case, 1997).

Ans: (4) The Speaker will preside when a resolution for his removal from office is under consideration of the Assembly. (as per APPSC official final key)

The Speaker of a State Legislative Assembly is elected by the Assembly from among its members (Article 178).

• He does not vote in the first instance; he has a casting vote only in case of a tie (Article 189).
• He can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Assembly after 14 days’ notice (Article 179).
• He vacates office if he ceases to be a member of the Assembly.

When a resolution for his removal is being considered, the Speaker cannot preside (Article 181), though he may speak and vote in the first instance. So statement (4) is the one that is not correct.

Note:

• On dissolution of the Assembly the Speaker continues until just before the new Assembly first meets.
• Decides disqualification under the Tenth Schedule (anti-defection).

Ans: (2) I and III only (as per APPSC official final key)

The Election Commission of India (Article 324) has superintendence, direction and control of elections to Parliament, State Legislatures and the offices of President and Vice-President.

It takes decisions on every aspect of the conduct and control of elections from announcement to results, enforces the Model Code of Conduct, and during elections government officers on election duty work under its control. The Commission can order the transfer of officials or recommend disciplinary action, but it cannot itself dismiss government officials. So I and III.

Note:

• ECI became a multi-member body in 1989, and permanently from 1993.
• The CEC can be removed only like a Supreme Court judge.

Ans: (1) I and III only (as per APPSC official final key)

The Constitution protects the independence of the Supreme Court in several ways:

• In appointing judges the President consults the Chief Justice of India (Article 124(2)); since the Second Judges case (1993) the collegium system is followed.
• Judges’ salaries are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India and are not voted upon by Parliament (Article 112(3)), and cannot be reduced to their disadvantage during their term.

Judges cannot be removed by the CJI. They are removed by the President on an address of both Houses passed by a special majority, on grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity (Article 124(4)). So I and III.

Note:

• Retired SC judges cannot plead before any court in India.
• Conduct of judges cannot be discussed in Parliament except in a removal motion (Article 121).

Ans: (2) II and III (as per APPSC official final key)

Under Article 131 the Supreme Court has original (exclusive) jurisdiction over federal disputes:

• between the Government of India and one or more States;
• between the Government of India and one or more States on one side and one or more other States on the other;
• between two or more States.

It does not cover election disputes to Parliament or State Legislatures, which go first to the High Court as election petitions under the Representation of the People Act, 1951. It also does not include disputes involving a Union Territory, as UTs are not States for Article 131. So II and III are not included.

Note:

• Disputes on Presidential/VP elections go to the Supreme Court directly (Article 71).
• Inter-state water disputes are excluded (Article 262).

Ans: (4) All of the above (as per APPSC official final key)

The National Commission for Scheduled Castes is a constitutional body under Article 338 (separate commission since the 89th Amendment, 2003). While investigating or inquiring into a complaint, it has all the powers of a civil court trying a suit (Article 338(8)), including:

• summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person and examining him on oath;
• requiring discovery and production of documents;
• receiving evidence on affidavits;
• requisitioning any public record from any court or office;
• issuing summons for examination of witnesses and documents.

So all three statements are correct.

Note:

• NCST: Article 338-A. NCBC: Article 338-B (102nd Amendment, 2018).
• The commission presents its report to the President.

Ans: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (as per APPSC official final key)

Article 79 says that the Parliament of India consists of the President and two Houses – the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha). The President is an integral part of Parliament though he is not a member of either House and does not sit in it.

A bill becomes law only with the President’s assent; he summons and prorogues the Houses, dissolves the Lok Sabha, and addresses both Houses at the first session after each general election and at the start of each year (Article 87). So both statements are true and R explains A, as per the key.

Note:

• This follows the British model, where Parliament = Crown + Lords + Commons.
• Article 168: State Legislature = Governor + House(s).

Ans: (3) II, III and IV (as per APPSC official final key)

Fundamental Duties were added in Part IV-A, Article 51-A by the 42nd Amendment (1976) on the Swaran Singh Committee’s recommendation. There are now 11 duties (the 11th added by the 86th Amendment, 2002). They include:

• to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture (51A(f));
• to develop the scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry and reform (51A(h));
• to safeguard public property and abjure violence (51A(i)).

“To protect the weaker sections from social injustice” is not a Fundamental Duty; it is a Directive Principle (Article 46). So II, III and IV.

Note:

• Idea borrowed from the former USSR Constitution.
• 11th duty: parent/guardian to provide education to children aged 6–14.

Ans: (1) Entry 64 (as per APPSC official final key)

The Seventh Schedule divides subjects into Union, State and Concurrent Lists. In the Union List:

• Entry 63 – Banaras Hindu University, Aligarh Muslim University, Delhi University and other institutions declared of national importance by Parliament.
• Entry 64 – institutions for scientific or technical education financed by the Government of India wholly or in part and declared by Parliament by law to be institutions of national importance (e.g. IITs, NITs).
• Entry 65 – Union agencies for professional/vocational training and research.
• Entry 66 – coordination and determination of standards in higher education and research.

So Entry 64.

Note:

• Education was moved from the State List to the Concurrent List (Entry 25) by the 42nd Amendment.
• UGC Act 1956 rests on Entry 66.

Ans: (1) Carl Friedrich (as per APPSC official final key)

This description of India as “not a nation in the traditional western sense but a comprehensive culture of continental scope”, made up of many linguistic and religious entities, is attributed in the key to the political scientist Carl J. Friedrich, a scholar of constitutionalism and federalism.

The idea behind it is “unity in diversity”: India is a civilisational unity held together by a common culture and a federal constitution, rather than a nation-state based on one language or religion. This is why the Constitution adopted a federal structure with a strong Centre (“Union of States”, Article 1).

Note:

• P.H. Appleby wrote reports on Indian public administration (1953, 1956).
• Woodrow Wilson is the father of the study of public administration.

Ans: (2) I, II and IV only (as per APPSC official final key)

Some Fundamental Rights are available only to citizens and are denied to aliens (foreigners):

• Article 15 – no discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth;
• Article 16 – equality of opportunity in public employment;
• Article 19 – six freedoms (speech, assembly, association, movement, residence, profession);
• Articles 29 and 30 – cultural and educational rights of minorities.

Rights such as Articles 14, 20, 21, 23 and 24 (against exploitation) are available to all persons, including foreigners. So I, II and IV.

Note:

• Enemy aliens do not get Article 22 protection.
• Citizenship: Articles 5–11, Part II; Citizenship Act, 1955.

Ans: (3) I and III only (as per APPSC official final key)

The Preamble is based on the Objectives Resolution moved by Jawaharlal Nehru on 13 December 1946 and adopted on 22 January 1947. It was enacted last, after the rest of the Constitution had been drafted, so that it matched the final text. So statement I is incorrect.

In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is part of the Constitution, though it is neither a source of power nor a limitation on it. It has no independent legal effect and is non-justiciable: it cannot be enforced in courts. So statement III is incorrect. II and IV are correct, and the incorrect ones are I and III.

Note:

• Berubari case (1960): Preamble not a part; overruled in Kesavananda.
• 42nd Amendment (1976) added Socialist, Secular and Integrity; the Preamble has been amended only once.

Ans: (1) Both I and II (as per APPSC official final key)

The PM CARES for Children Scheme was announced by the Prime Minister on 29 May 2021. It supports children who lost both parents, or the surviving parent, legal guardian or adoptive parents to COVID-19 (between 11 March 2020 and 28 February 2022). So both statements are correct.

It provides a corpus of ₹10 lakh available at age 23 (with a monthly stipend from 18), free education, health cover under Ayushman Bharat (₹5 lakh), and help with higher education loans. It is run by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.

Note:

• PM CARES Fund was created in March 2020.
• Mission Vatsalya is the umbrella child protection scheme.

Ans: (2) Articles 21A and 24 (as per APPSC official final key)

Article 21-A, inserted by the 86th Amendment (2002), makes free and compulsory education for children aged 6 to 14 a Fundamental Right; it is implemented through the RTE Act, 2009.

The Right against Exploitation covers Articles 23 and 24. Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings and forced labour (begar). Article 24 prohibits employment of children below 14 years in factories, mines or other hazardous work. So the pair is 21-A and 24.

Note:

• Article 45 (DPSP) now covers early childhood care up to age 6.
• Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 (amended 2016).

Ans: (3) II and III only (as per APPSC official final key)

Goods and Services Tax (GST) was introduced through the 122nd Constitutional Amendment Bill, which became the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016, and came into force on 1 July 2017.

GST is an indirect tax, so it has nothing to do with direct tax laws (statement I is wrong). It is a destination-based consumption tax: the tax goes to the state where goods or services are consumed, not where they are produced. So II and III.

Note:

• Article 246-A: concurrent power to tax GST; Article 279-A: GST Council (chaired by Union Finance Minister).
• Kelkar Task Force (2003) first proposed a national GST.

Ans: (2) Finance Commission of India (as per APPSC official final key)

The Finance Commission is a quasi-judicial constitutional body set up by the President every five years under Article 280. It recommends:

• the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Centre and the States (vertical devolution) and the allocation among the States (horizontal devolution);
• principles for grants-in-aid to the States (Article 275).

The 15th Finance Commission (N.K. Singh) recommended 41% of the divisible pool for the States. NITI Aayog, the Inter-State Council and the NDC have no such role.

Note:

• 16th Finance Commission chaired by Arvind Panagariya (2026–31).
• First Finance Commission (1951): K.C. Neogy.

Ans: (2) To submit the report to the Prime Minister related to the protection of Scheduled Castes. (as per APPSC official final key)

The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (Article 338) investigates matters relating to the safeguards provided for SCs, inquires into specific complaints about deprivation of their rights, advises on their socio-economic development, and evaluates progress.

It submits its reports to the President, not to the Prime Minister. The President places them before Parliament with an action-taken memorandum. So statement (2) is not a function.

Note:

• Reports relating to a State go to the Governor as well.
• NCSC is chaired by a Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and three members.

Ans: (4) Manner of reservation (as per APPSC official final key)

The UPSC is a constitutional body (Articles 315–323). Under Article 320 its functions are:

• to conduct examinations for appointments to all-India and central services;
• to be consulted on methods of recruitment, principles for appointments, promotions and transfers;
• on disciplinary matters affecting civil servants, and on claims for costs and pensions.

UPSC is not consulted on the manner of reservation of posts for backward classes, SCs and STs (Article 320(4)); this is decided by the government.

Note:

• UPSC presents its annual report to the President.
• Chairman and members hold office for 6 years or until age 65.

Ans: (3) I, II, III and V (as per APPSC official final key)

The Eleventh Schedule, added by the 73rd Amendment (1992), lists 29 subjects for Panchayats (Article 243-G). They include women and child development (25), public distribution system (28), libraries (20) and markets and fairs (22).

Slum improvement and upgradation is an urban subject, listed in the Twelfth Schedule (18 subjects for Municipalities, 74th Amendment). So I, II, III and V.

Note:

• Twelfth Schedule also includes urban planning, fire services and burial grounds.
• 73rd Amendment: three-tier system, one-third seats reserved for women.

Ans: (1) I only (as per APPSC official final key)

The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was set up on 18 October 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, drawing on Article 21 (right to a healthy environment). It handles environmental cases and is meant to dispose of them within six months.

The NGT is not bound by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908; it is guided by the principles of natural justice. It has five places of sitting: New Delhi (principal), Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai. So only statement I is correct.

Note:

• India was the third country to set up such a tribunal, after Australia and New Zealand.
• NGT applies the polluter pays and precautionary principles.

Ans: (3) I, II and III (as per APPSC official final key)

The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is a statutory body under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. The 2019 Amendment made these changes:

• Besides a former Chief Justice of India, a former judge of the Supreme Court can now be Chairperson.
• The term of the Chairperson and members was cut from five years to three years (or age 70).
• They are eligible for re-appointment.

So all three are correct.

Note:

• Chairperson is appointed by the President on a committee headed by the PM.
• Similar changes were made for State Human Rights Commissions.

Ans: (4) I and III only (as per APPSC official final key)

The National Commission for Minorities was set up under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992. It monitors constitutional safeguards and makes recommendations for their effective implementation by the Central and State Governments.

Six communities are notified as minorities under the Act: Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Parsis (Zoroastrians) – notified in 1993 – and Jains (2014). The notification is by the Ministry of Minority Affairs, so statement II (five, Ministry of Welfare) is wrong. So I and III.

Note:

• Ministry of Minority Affairs was created in 2006.
• Linguistic minorities: Special Officer under Article 350-B.

Ans: (2) Civil Aviation (as per APPSC official final key)

The Chicago Convention is the Convention on International Civil Aviation, signed at Chicago on 7 December 1944. It set the rules of airspace, aircraft registration and safety, and created the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), a UN agency headquartered at Montreal. India is a founding member.

7 December is observed as International Civil Aviation Day.

Note:

• Montreal Protocol (1987): ozone-depleting substances such as CFCs.
• IMO (London): merchant shipping.

Ans: (1) I only (as per APPSC official final key)

The Competition Commission of India (CCI) is a statutory body under the Competition Act, 2002, as amended by the Competition (Amendment) Act, 2007. It was set up in 2003 and fully functional from 2009. It prevents anti-competitive agreements, abuse of dominant position and regulates mergers.

The Act provides for a Chairperson and not less than two and not more than six members. After 2018 the government reduced the commission to a Chairperson and three members. So statement II is not correct; only I.

Note:

• CCI replaced the MRTP Commission (MRTP Act, 1969), based on the Raghavan Committee.
• Appeals go to NCLAT.

Ans: (1) Sivaraman Committee (as per APPSC official final key)

NABARD was set up on 12 July 1982 by an Act of Parliament on the recommendation of the CRAFICARD (Committee to Review Arrangements for Institutional Credit for Agriculture and Rural Development) set up by the RBI under B. Sivaraman (1979). It took over the agricultural credit functions of the RBI and the refinance functions of the Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation.

The Santhanam Committee dealt with corruption (CVC), and Sarkaria and Rajamannar with Centre-State relations.

Note:

• NABARD headquarters: Mumbai.
• It manages the Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF).

Ans: (1) Institute for Management Development (as per APPSC official final key)

The World Competitiveness Ranking (World Competitiveness Yearbook) is published every year by the Institute for Management Development (IMD), a business school in Lausanne, Switzerland, since 1989. It ranks economies by economic performance, government efficiency, business efficiency and infrastructure.

The World Economic Forum published a different index, the Global Competitiveness Index. UNDP publishes the Human Development Index.

Note:

• WEF reports: Global Gender Gap, Travel and Tourism Development Index.
• World Bank: Business Ready (B-READY), which replaced Ease of Doing Business.

Ans: (3) Officer of the Army Department (as per APPSC official final key)

In the Arthashastra, Kautilya lists 18 tirthas, the highest officers of state, such as the mantri, purohita, senapati, yuvaraja, samaharta (revenue collector) and sannidhata (treasurer).

Among them the Dandapala (from danda, force) was the officer in charge of the army department (supplies and maintenance of the army). The durgapala was the guardian of forts, and the pradeshta a magistrate.

Note:

• Arthashastra has 15 books (adhikaranas); rediscovered by R. Shamasastry (1905).
• Saptanga theory: seven limbs of the state (swami, amatya, janapada, durga, kosha, danda, mitra).