APPSC Group-1 2024 Polity Previous Year Questions

Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid regarding the office of the ‘Whip’?
I. Although not mentioned in the Constitution of India, the office of the ‘Whip’ has however been incorporated in the Rules of the House by the ‘Leaders and Chief Whips of Recognised Parties and Groups in Parliament (Facilities) Act, 1998’.
II. The role of the Chief Whip of the government party in the Lok Sabha is served by the Minister of State for Parliamentary Affairs.
III. All political parties – whether ruling or opposition, will have their own Whips in the Parliament.
IV. The Chief Whip is not responsible to the leader of the House but is responsible only to the leader of the party that has appointed him/her to the office of Chief Whip.

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In the context of distinctions existing between a Public Bill and a Private Bill, select the statement/statements that is/are valid:
I. A Private Bill which has been introduced by a Member of Parliament sitting in the opposition and which has been approved by the House will have to be referred to the law department for consultation.
II. A Public Bill is always introduced in the Parliament by the Minister or a member of the government party.
III. A Private Bill will not reflect the policy of the government but upon its approval by the House, a Private Bill would have reflected the policy of the government.
IV. Public Bills and Private Bills, regardless of the differences between them, are governed by the same general procedure, and are required to be passed through the same stages in the House.

Which of the following State Bill/Bills will have to be mandatorily reserved for the President’s consideration?
I. A Bill that proposes to give effect to certain Directive Principles of State Policy.
II. A Bill requiring prior Presidential sanction but which was however not obtained under Article 304.
III. A Bill that attracts the provisions of Article 288.
IV. A Bill seeking to operate a provision that belongs to one of the Concurrent List entries, but which is however repugnant to any Union law.

Select the correct answer:

Consider the following statements in connection with the office of Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG):
I. CAG can be removed by the President only in accordance with the procedure mentioned in the Constitution but this does not mean that the CAG can be impeached from office in the same manner as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
II. Some public corporations are audited exclusively by private professional auditors, and the CAG may have no involvement at all.
III. The CAG can conduct legal, regulatory and propriety audit but not performance audit.
IV. The Constitution of India has not specified any criterion for the appointment of CAG.

Which of the above statement/statements is/are valid?

In connection with the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid?
I. The GST Council was established as a Statutory body, but it was later turned into a Constitutional federal body by an amendment of the Constitution.
II. The proceedings of the GST Council will be invalidated in the eventuality of any defect in the appointment of a person as a member of the Council.
III. In the event of any dispute between more than two states over GST issues, the GST Council has to refer the matter to be adjudicated by the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament.
IV. The GST Council is required to make recommendations to the Centre and the States on the threshold limit of turnover below which goods and services may be exempted from GST.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Election Commission of India:
I. The Constitution of India has debarred the retiring Election Commissioners from any further appointment by the government.
II. In ‘Anoop Baranwal Case’ (2023), the Supreme Court has directed the Government to treat the Regional Commissioners on par with the Election Commissioners (other than the Chief Election Commissioner), as far as removal from office is concerned.
III. Since its inception, the Election Commission had functioned as a multi-member body.
IV. The power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to the office of Vice-President of India is vested in the Election Commission.

Which of the above statement/statements is/are valid?

In the context of Centre-State Relations, which of the following statement/statements are valid?
I. Punchhi Commission had recommended that the procedure that is followed for the removal of President should also be applicable for the impeachment of Governors as well.
II. The law that is made by the Parliament with respect to any matter in the State List in relation to the State in which President’s rule is imposed, cannot be re-enacted by the State Legislature after the President’s rule is ended.
III. The Sarkaria Commission was not the first to recommend the establishment of an Inter-State Council.
IV. Only the Lok Sabha can pass a resolution declaring that it is necessary in the national interest that the Parliament should make laws with respect to Goods and Services Tax.

Consider the following statements in connection with the distribution of tax revenues between the Centre and the States:
I. The proceeds of the surcharges that are levied on taxes and duties referred to in Article 269 and Article 270 of the Constitution of India, would be shared between the Centre and the States.
II. Article 268A and Article 272 of the Constitution of India were both repealed by same Constitutional Amendment Act.
III. Tax on the sale of petroleum crude is levied by the Centre but collected by the States.
IV. The net proceeds of tax categories that are falling under Article 269 of the Constitution of India, do not form a part of the Consolidated Fund of India.

Which of the above statement/statements is/are valid?

Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct in relation to the Human Rights Commissions in India?
I. The role to undertake functions relating to human rights in the Union Territory of Ladakh may be conferred upon a State Human Rights Commission by the Central Government.
II. Only 2 persons can be appointed as members of the National Human Rights Commission under the category of possessing knowledge or practical experience with respect to human rights.
III. The President can remove the Chairperson of the State Human Rights Commission on the ground of proved misbehaviour. However, the President has to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court in this matter.
IV. The National Human Rights Commission is not empowered to inquire into any matter after the expiry of two years from the date on which the act constituting violation of human rights is alleged to have been committed.

Which of the following statement/statements can be attributed correctly to the exercise of Delimitation?
I. The principle of ‘one man, one vote’ reiterates the need for the exercise of Delimitation.
II. The Government of India can set up a Delimitation Commission for the purpose of delimitation of Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies in a select few States or UTs.
III. The Delimitation Commission can only recommend the re-delimitation of territorial Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies but cannot recommend on the reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
IV. The Nodal Ministry for the Delimitation Commission of India is the Ministry of Law and Justice.

Select the correct answer:

Consider the following statements with regard to India’s Foreign Policy:
I. India’s Act East Policy was originally conceived as an economic initiative but had later extended into political, strategic and cultural dimensions.
II. The ‘Connect Central Asia Policy’ has been taken forward with the institutionalization of the ‘India-Central Asia Summit’ mechanism.
III. Under the ‘Security and Growth for All in the Region’ (SAGAR) Policy, the DRDO initiated the Marine and Allied Interdisciplinary Training and Research Initiative (MAITRI) for the purpose of establishing long-term collaboration with countries in the East Asian region.
IV. India’s Think West Policy is an outreach to the Western Industrialized nations for strengthening of relations in areas of education and defence.

Which of the above statements are valid?

Which of the following statement/statements can best describe the nature of security concerns/developments for India?
I. The development of the Hambantota Development Zone can be seen or viewed as a policy of containment funded by Pakistan.
II. India’s support in building the Chabahar port in Iran may serve as a strategic act to balance the Chinese-funded Gwadar port in Yemen.
III. Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) is an extension of the Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) and serves as a platform for maritime security.
IV. The Malabar Exercise is connected with the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QSD).

In the context of Central Government programmes, which one of following statement/statements is/are INCORRECT?
I. The objective of Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana (PM-AJAY) is aimed at reducing poverty of the ST communities by generating additional employment opportunities.
II. Under the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan Yojana (PM-SYM), monthly contribution is payable by the beneficiary, the State Government and the Central Government.
III. Under the ‘FutureSkills Prime’ Programme, Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) is the key implementing agency.
IV. Mission Karmayogi comprises of eight key pillars that are intended to create functional and behavioural competencies among the civil servants.

In the context of the enactment of Budget, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid?
I. The Appropriation Bill carries an automatic repeal clause.
II. The provision ‘Vote on Account’ has become ineffectual after the re-scheduling of the budget cycle from the last day of February to the first day of February.
III. Amendments to either reject or reduce a tax can not be moved in case of the Finance Bill.
IV. The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India can only be discussed.

In connection with the veto power of the Indian President, which one of the following statement/statements is/are valid?
I. The Indian President possesses ‘Suspensive Veto’ in the case of Money Bills but not in the case of Finance Bills.
II. The Indian President can exercise ‘Absolute Veto’ with respect to the Government Bills at all times.
III. The Indian President enjoys ‘Pocket Veto’ indefinitely whereas the American President possesses ‘Qualified Veto’.
IV. The objective of the veto power in being conferred upon the Indian President is to ensure a system of checks and balances between the office of the President and that of the power of the Parliament.

With reference to the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
I. It was intended to protect Central and State laws that are included in it from judicial review on the ground of violation of Fundamental Rights.
II. The entries included in it are not restricted to the subject of land reforms and abolition of the zamindari system alone.
III. Article 31B carries a retrospective effect but it has ceased to be operative after the ‘I.R. Coelho Case’ (2007).
IV. The entries incorporated in it are only done so, by the power of the Central Government.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

The ‘Territory of India’ and the ‘Union of India’ are two distinct and different expressions due to which of the following reason/reasons?
I. The ‘Union of India’ includes just States and Union Territories while the ‘Territory of India’ includes in addition to States and Union Territories, those territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any future time as well.
II. The expression ‘Union of India’ is mentioned in the Constitution of India, but the expression ‘Territory of India’ is not found in the Constitution of India.
III. The First Schedule of the Constitution of India is with reference to just the ‘Union of India’ but not the ‘Territory of India’.
IV. The Union Territories are covered by the expression ‘Territory of India’ and not by the expression ‘Union of India’.

Select the correct answer:

With reference to Indian polity, which one of the following statements would you accept as appropriate ideas referring to ‘Equality’?
I. The primacy of equality is safeguarded, defined and enforced by the courts of law rather than by the Constitution as conceptualized by A.V. Dicey.
II. Article 14 of the Constitution of India constitutes only the concept of ‘Equality before the law’ but does not mention the concept of ‘Equal Protection of Laws’.
III. Article 194 and Article 361A of the Constitution of India are indicative of the fact that equality in India is not absolute.
IV. The theory of equality includes distinction of merit but not distinction on account of hereditary titles or nobility as propounded by the Balaji Raghavan Case (1995).

Select the correct answer:

Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct with regard to the Fundamental Duties?
I. Fundamental Duties are confined to just the citizens of India with the exception of Article 51A(i), which is also applicable to foreigners that are resident in India.
II. The Verma Committee on Fundamental Duties of the Citizens (1999) had recommended the implementation of the Fundamental Duties irrespective of the existence of legal provisions.
III. In ‘Kesavananda Bharati’ Case (1973), the Supreme Court of India held that the Fundamental Duties may be used to decide the constitutionality of laws that are otherwise ambiguous to interpret.
IV. The Sardar Swaran Singh Committee had recommended for penalties to be considered in the eventuality of non-compliance of any of the Fundamental Duties.

Select the correct answer:

With regards to Directive Principles of State Policy, what is the correct chronological order in which the following additions/changes were incorporated into the Constitution of India through amendments?
I. The adding of a second aspect relating to Article 38.
II. The changing of the subject-matter of Article 45.
III. The adding of Article 43B.
IV. The adding of Article 48A.

Select the correct answer:

Consider the following statements:
I. The 25th Constitutional Amendment Act (1971) inserted a new Article 31C, whose first provision was declared as invalid by the Supreme Court in the Keshavananda Bharati Case (1973).
II. The Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills Case (1980) considered the extension of the scope of the second provision of Article 31C as invalid as well.
III. The Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills Case (1980) has considered the importance of harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.
IV. The present interpretation with respect to the Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles is the same reiteration of the principle that was first propounded by the Supreme Court in the Chamapakan Dorairajan case (1951).

Which of the statement/statements given above is/are INCORRECT?

With reference to the procedure for Amendment of the Constitution, consider the following statements:
I. A private member of the House of the Parliament can introduce the Bill for amendment of the Constitution only after the prior permission of the President.
II. Article 368 of the Constitution of India provides for three types of amendments — simple majority, special majority and ratification of half of the States by a simple majority.
III. For amendments that require ratification of half of the States by a simple majority, it is not necessary that all the State Legislatures must take action on the Bill.
IV. The State Legislatures can pass a resolution requesting the Parliament to amend Article 368 in the same manner, as it could be done for the creation or abolition of Legislative Councils in the States.

Which of the statement/statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about the ‘Basic Structure’ of the Constitution:
I. The doctrine of the ‘Basic Structure’ has been incorporated into the Constitution of India by an Act of Parliament.
II. Presently, the Parliament under Article 368 of the Constitution can amend any part of the Constitution of India without affecting the ‘Basic Structure’ of the Constitution.
III. Parliament’s limited power to amend the Constitution is also an element of the ‘Basic Structure’ of the Constitution.
IV. The Supreme Court in the ‘Kumar Padma Prasad Case’ (1992) has declared that the mandate to build a ‘welfare state’ is an element of the ‘Basic Structure’ of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Which of the following statement is correct regarding Parliamentary Privileges?

The equal status of the Rajya Sabha with the Lok Sabha can be described by which of the following statement/statements?
I. Introduction and passage of Money Bills.
II. Consideration of the CAG’s report.
III. Initiating the removal of the Vice-President.
IV. Approval of proclamation of all the three types of emergencies by the President.

Select the correct answer:

Which of the following source/sources of revenue qualifies/qualify for being given to the Panchayats?
I. The tax proceeds that are assigned to the States from the Centre may be again re-distributed to the Panchayats as recommended by the Central Finance Commission.
II. Loans from the State Government.
III. Under Article 243-I of the Constitution of India, the State Government is empowered to devolve its own funds to the Panchayats even in the absence of the State Finance Commission’s recommendations.
IV. Internal Resource Generation is facilitated only in the case of Panchayats situated in Scheduled Areas as per the Fifth Schedule.

Select the correct answer:

Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code:
Assertion (A): In connection with their own resource collection, the Panchayats at the village level are better placed than the Panchayats at the Intermediate and the District levels.
Reason (R): The Gram Panchayats have their own tax domain whereas the other two tiers have to depend only on tolls, fees and non-tax revenue for internal resource generation.

In connection with the lapsing of Bills, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid?
I. If the Lok Sabha has passed the Bill, but if the Bill has still not been discussed in the Rajya Sabha, then such a Bill does not lapse.
II. A Bill returned by the President for reconsideration of the Houses will not lapse. However, the Lok Sabha should not have been dissolved by the time the Bill is returned.
III. A Bill that is passed by both the Houses but pending for President’s assent will not lapse.
IV. A Bill that is pending in the Rajya Sabha but which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha will also lapse.

Which of the following statement/statements is/are INCORRECT regarding the Law Commission of India?

Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid with respect to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
I. The term ‘democratic’ as used in the Preamble is a mix of British Fabian Socialism and American Populism.
II. The term ‘Republic’ in the Preamble indicates that India has an elected head, called the Prime Minister.
III. The ‘Liberty’ expressed in the Preamble is neither absolute nor qualified.
IV. The term ‘Fraternity’ as used by the Preamble, originally denoted the dignity of the individual only.

Select the correct answer: