Daily Current Affairs Archives | Page 11 of 37

BRICS Disaster Risk Reduction Meeting in Puri-Explained

Why in News?

The BRICS Technical Meeting of the Disaster Risk Reduction Working Group commenced in Puri, Odisha, on June 3, 2026, under India’s BRICS Presidency 2026.

The meeting is important for exams because it connects three areas:

International relations: BRICS and Global South cooperation
Disaster management: disaster risk reduction and climate resilience
Governance: Odisha’s disaster management model

Key Facts for Prelims

Point	Exam-Relevant Fact
Event	BRICS Disaster Risk Reduction Working Group technical meeting
Place	Puri, Odisha
Dates	June 3-5, 2026
Hosted under	India’s BRICS Presidency 2026
Main focus	Disaster risk reduction, climate resilience, early warning, resilient infrastructure
Why Odisha?	Known for cyclone preparedness, early warning systems, evacuation planning and disaster response
Static link	Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction 2015-2030

Why the Puri Meeting Matters?

The Puri meeting highlights disaster risk reduction as a major area of BRICS cooperation. This is important because climate change is increasing the frequency and intensity of extreme weather events such as cyclones, floods, heatwaves and droughts.

For India, the meeting is significant because:

India is holding the BRICS Chairship in 2026.
India’s BRICS theme is Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability.
Disaster risk reduction fits directly under the Resilience pillar.
Odisha’s cyclone management model is being showcased internationally.

Odisha Model of Disaster Management

Odisha is frequently cited as an important case study in disaster preparedness because the state has improved its ability to manage cyclones and other natural disasters.

Important features:

Multi-hazard early warning systems
Cyclone shelters and evacuation planning
Community-level preparedness
Coordination between state agencies and local administration
Use of technology for alerts and response
Focus on reducing loss of life during cyclones

What is BRICS?

BRICS is an intergovernmental grouping of major emerging economies. It began as BRIC with Brazil, Russia, India and China. South Africa joined later, making it BRICS.

For exams, BRICS is important because it represents:

Voice of the Global South
Reform of global governance institutions
South-South cooperation
Alternative development finance through the New Development Bank
Cooperation in economy, technology, health, agriculture, climate, disaster management and security

BRICS Membership

The original BRICS members are Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.

Recent expansion added Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, United Arab Emirates and Indonesia.

Institutional Pillars of BRICS

New Development Bank

The New Development Bank was established by BRICS countries. The agreement for establishing the bank was signed during the 6th BRICS Summit in Fortaleza, Brazil, in 2014.

Headquarters: Shanghai, China
Focus: Infrastructure and sustainable development projects
Earlier known as: BRICS Development Bank
Membership: Open beyond BRICS countries
Exam importance: Alternative development finance institution linked to Global South

Contingent Reserve Arrangement

The BRICS Contingent Reserve Arrangement was also signed in Fortaleza, Brazil, in 2014.

Purpose:

Provides financial support during short-term balance of payments pressure
Helps member countries face global liquidity shocks
Acts as a financial safety mechanism

India and BRICS 2026

India is holding the BRICS Chairship in 2026 and will host the 18th BRICS Summit in 2026.

India’s BRICS 2026 theme is Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability.

India’s focus areas include disaster risk reduction, agriculture and food security, health cooperation, energy security, supply chain resilience, innovation and emerging technologies, and reform of global governance institutions.

Interconnected Static Subject: Sendai Framework

The Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction 2015-2030 is a global framework adopted in Sendai, Japan, in 2015.

Its four priorities are:

Understanding disaster risk
Strengthening disaster risk governance
Investing in disaster risk reduction for resilience
Enhancing disaster preparedness for effective response and Build Back Better in recovery

Quick Revision Table

Term	Meaning	Exam Importance
BRICS	Grouping of major emerging economies	Global South, multilateral reform
Puri Meeting	BRICS DRR Working Group technical meeting	Disaster management current affairs
DRR	Disaster Risk Reduction	Reducing disaster risks before disasters occur
Odisha Model	State-level disaster preparedness model	Cyclone management case study
Sendai Framework	Global DRR framework 2015-2030	Four priorities, disaster governance
NDB	BRICS development finance institution	Infrastructure and sustainable development
CRA	BRICS financial safety mechanism	Balance of payments and liquidity support
India BRICS 2026	India’s BRICS Chairship	Resilience, innovation, cooperation, sustainability

Trap / Confusing Points

Confusing Area	Correct Understanding
BRICS vs G7	BRICS represents emerging economies; G7 represents advanced industrial economies
Disaster response vs DRR	Response happens after disaster; DRR focuses on reducing risk before disaster
NDB vs CRA	NDB funds development projects; CRA provides liquidity support
BRICS vs BIMSTEC	BRICS is a global/emerging economy grouping; BIMSTEC is a Bay of Bengal regional grouping
Sendai Framework vs Paris Agreement	Sendai deals with disaster risk reduction; Paris Agreement deals with climate change
Odisha Model	Known mainly for disaster preparedness, early warning and cyclone response
Saudi Arabia in BRICS	Membership/status should be checked with latest official/exam source due to differing reporting

Practice MCQs

1. The BRICS Disaster Risk Reduction Working Group technical meeting in June 2026 was held in which Indian city?

A. Bhubaneswar
B. Puri
C. Visakhapatnam
D. New Delhi

Answer: B. Puri

Explanation: The BRICS Disaster Risk Reduction Working Group technical meeting commenced in Puri, Odisha, on June 3, 2026.

2. The New Development Bank was established by BRICS countries through an agreement signed at which summit?

A. Durban Summit, 2013
B. Fortaleza Summit, 2014
C. Ufa Summit, 2015
D. Goa Summit, 2016

Answer: B. Fortaleza Summit, 2014

Explanation: The agreement establishing the New Development Bank was signed during the 6th BRICS Summit at Fortaleza, Brazil, in 2014.

3. The Sendai Framework is primarily related to:

A. Climate finance
B. Disaster risk reduction
C. Nuclear disarmament
D. Biodiversity conservation

Answer: B. Disaster risk reduction

Explanation: The Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction 2015-2030 provides global priorities for reducing disaster risks and losses.

4. Which of the following best describes the BRICS Contingent Reserve Arrangement?

A. A global environmental treaty
B. A defence cooperation pact
C. A financial safety mechanism for liquidity and balance of payments pressure
D. A permanent BRICS Parliament

Answer: C. A financial safety mechanism for liquidity and balance of payments pressure

Explanation: CRA was created to help BRICS countries manage short-term liquidity and balance of payments pressures.

5. Which Indian state is being highlighted for its disaster management model in connection with the BRICS DRR meeting in Puri?

A. Gujarat
B. Odisha
C. Kerala
D. Maharashtra

Answer: B. Odisha

Explanation: Odisha’s disaster management model, especially cyclone preparedness and early warning, is being showcased during the BRICS DRR meeting.

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Producer Price Index 2026 Explained

Why in News?

The government has decided to gradually phase out the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) over the next five years and replace it with the Producer Price Index (PPI).

The Producer Price Index 2026 aims to provide a more comprehensive assessment of inflation by covering goods, inputs and services.

What is Producer Price Index (PPI)?

The Producer Price Index (PPI) measures changes in prices received by producers for goods and services at different stages of production. Unlike WPI, it captures price movements across manufacturing inputs, outputs and services, making it a more comprehensive indicator of producer inflation

Components of PPI

The new PPI framework consists of three indices:

Output PPI – Measures prices received by producers for finished goods.
Input PPI – Measures prices paid by producers for raw materials and intermediate goods.
Services PPI – Tracks producer prices in service sectors such as banking, insurance, telecom, railways and aviation.

WPI vs PPI

Feature	WPI	PPI
Coverage	Goods only	Goods and Services
Stage Measured	Wholesale level	Multiple stages of production
Services Included	No	Yes
Input Prices	No	Yes
Inflation Measurement	Limited	More comprehensive
International Practice	Less common	Widely used globally

Significance

The Producer Price Index 2026 aligns India’s inflation measurement system with international standards. By covering services and production inputs, it provides a more realistic picture of cost pressures in the economy. The transition will also help policymakers, businesses and researchers better assess inflation trends and formulate economic policies

Quick Revision points

Topic	Fact
New Inflation Indicator	Producer Price Index (PPI)
Existing Index	Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
Transition Period	5 years
Revised WPI Base Year	2022-23
Previous WPI Base Year	2011-12
PPI Components	Output PPI, Input PPI, Services PPI
Services Covered Initially	Banking, Insurance, Telecom, Railways, Aviation
Key Advantage	Covers both goods and services
WPI Coverage	Goods only
Nodal Department	DPIIT

Practice MCQs

Q1. Which index is proposed to replace the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India?

a) CPI
b) GDP Deflator
c) Producer Price Index
d) Industrial Production Index

Answer: (c) Producer Price Index — PPI will gradually replace WPI over five years.

Q2. The revised WPI series released by DPIIT uses which base year?

a) 2011-12
b) 2017-18
c) 2020-21
d) 2022-23

Answer: (d) 2022-23 — The revised WPI adopts 2022-23 as the new base year.

Q3. Which of the following is NOT a component of the new PPI framework?

a) Output PPI
b) Input PPI
c) Services PPI
d) Consumer PPI

Answer: (d) Consumer PPI — The new framework includes Output, Input and Services PPI.

Q4. A major advantage of PPI over WPI is that it includes:

a) Retail prices only
b) International trade data
c) Goods and services prices
d) Consumer expenditure data

Answer: (c) Goods and services prices — PPI provides broader coverage than WPI.

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Rudram II Missile successfully testfired

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, Defence Current Affairs / PSCchronicles team

Why in News?

DRDO and the Indian Air Force (IAF) successfully conducted flight tests of the RudraM-II air-to-surface missile.

The RudraM-II Missile Test 2026 demonstrated the missile’s capability to engage enemy targets from long stand-off distances. The indigenous weapon system is designed to strengthen India’s suppression of enemy air defence capabilities.

What is RudraM-II Missile?

RudraM-II is an indigenous air-to-surface anti-radiation missile developed by DRDO for the Indian Air Force.

Key features include:

Designed to detect and destroy enemy radar emissions.
Capable of striking targets at distances of 300–350 km.
Travels at hypersonic speeds up to Mach 5.5.
Can carry warheads weighing up to 200 kg.
Launched from fighter aircraft against high-value enemy assets.

What is an Anti-Radiation Missile?

An anti-radiation missile (ARM) is a precision-guided weapon designed to locate and destroy enemy radar systems, air defence networks, communication stations and electronic emitters.

Such missiles play a crucial role in Suppression of Enemy Air Defences (SEAD) missions by neutralizing radar-guided threats before air operations.

Quick Revision Points-RudraM-II Missile

Topic	Fact
Missile Name	RudraM-II
Developed By	DRDO
Service User	Indian Air Force (IAF)
Missile Type	Air-to-Surface Anti-Radiation Missile
Maximum Speed	Mach 5.5
Strike Range	300–350 km
Payload Capacity	Up to 200 kg
Primary Role	Destruction of enemy radar systems
Warfare Domain	Suppression of Enemy Air Defences (SEAD)

Practice MCQs on Rudram II missile:

Q1. RudraM-II is classified as which type of missile?

a) Surface-to-air missile
b) Ballistic missile
c) Air-to-surface anti-radiation missile
d) Anti-tank missile

Answer: (c) Air-to-surface anti-radiation missile — It is designed to destroy radar-emitting targets.

Q2. What is the approximate strike range of RudraM-II?

a) 100 km
b) 200 km
c) 300–350 km
d) 500 km

Answer: (c) 300–350 km — The missile can engage targets from stand-off distances.

Q3. RudraM-II has been developed by which organisation?

a) HAL
b) ISRO
c) BEL
d) DRDO

Answer: (d) DRDO — The missile is an indigenous DRDO-developed weapon system.

Q4. The primary purpose of an anti-radiation missile is to destroy:

a) Tanks
b) Aircraft carriers
c) Radar and electronic emitters
d) Submarines

Answer: (c) Radar and electronic emitters — Anti-radiation missiles target radar signals and air defence systems.

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AP BC Reservation commission to Submit Report by July 15

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, Andhra Pradesh Current Affairs / PSCchronicles team

Why in News?

The AP BC Reservation Commission 2026, headed by Rajeev Ranjan Mishra, is expected to submit its report to the Andhra Pradesh government by July 15, 2026

The single-member commission was constituted to conduct an empirical study on the nature and extent of backwardness among Backward Classes (BCs) for determining political reservations in local body elections.
The exercise assumes significance as the state government seeks to provide 34% reservation for BCs in local self-government institutions.

Its key tasks include:

Assessing the socio-economic status of BC communities.
Determining the BC population ratio in constituencies.
Providing data to justify political reservations in local body elections.
Ensuring compliance with Supreme Court guidelines on reservation policies.

Interconnected concept: Triple Test

The “Triple Test” is a three-condition procedural framework mandated by the Supreme Court of India that a state government must satisfy before providing Other Backward Classes (OBC) reservations in local body elections (panchayats and municipalities)

The concept was first outlined by a Constitution Bench in the case of K. Krishna Murthy v. Union of India (2010) and later solidified as a mandatory rule in Vikas Kishanrao Gawali v. State of Maharashtra (2021)

Set up a dedicated Commission: States must appoint a special committee to conduct a rigorous empirical inquiry into the nature and implications of backwardness in local bodies.
Specify proportion of reservation: States must specify the exact quota required for each local body based on the Commission’s data to avoid aggregate over-reservation.
Adhere to the 50% cap: The total reservation for Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), and OBCs combined must not exceed 50% of the total seats

The AP BC Reservation Commission 2026 has been constituted to fulfill the first requirement of the Triple Test.

Constitutional Basis

Political reservations in Panchayats and Municipalities are governed by:

Article 243D – Reservation in Panchayats.
Article 243T – Reservation in Municipalities.

Quick revision

Topic	Fact
Commission Name	Rajeev Ranjan Mishra Commission
Objective	Empirical study on Backward Classes (BCs)
Purpose	Determine BC reservations in local body elections
Proposed BC Reservation	34%
Legal Requirement	Compliance with Supreme Court’s Triple Test
Triple Test – Step 1	Dedicated Commission for empirical inquiry
Triple Test – Step 2	Reservation proportion based on Commission recommendations
Triple Test – Step 3	Total SC/ST/OBC reservations not to exceed 50%
Constitutional Provision (Panchayats)	Article 243D
Constitutional Provision (Municipalities)	Article 243T
Key Data Collected	BC population ratio and socio-economic status
Importance	Provides legal basis for BC political reservations

Q1. The Rajeev Ranjan Mishra Commission (AP BC Reservation commission 2026) in Andhra Pradesh was constituted primarily for which purpose?

a) Delimitation of constituencies
b) BC reservation empirical study
c) Caste census
d) Municipal finance reforms

Answer: (b) BC reservation empirical study — The commission was formed to assess backwardness for local body reservations.

Q2. Which constitutional provision deals with reservation in Panchayats?

a) Article 243G
b) Article 243W
c) Article 243D
d) Article 280

Answer: (c) Article 243D — It provides for reservations in Panchayats.

Q3. The first condition of the Triple Test requires:

a) State-wide caste census
b) Parliamentary approval
c) Dedicated commission and empirical inquiry
d) Constitutional amendment

Answer: (c) Dedicated commission and empirical inquiry — This is the first requirement laid down by the Supreme Court.

Q4. The AP government aims to provide what percentage of reservation for BCs in local bodies?

a) 27%
b) 30%
c) 34%
d) 50%

Answer: (c) 34% — The proposed reservation is 34%.

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Indiramma Bheema Scheme 2026- Explained

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, Telangana Current Affairs / PSCchronicles team

Why in News?

The Telangana government launched the Indiramma Kutumba Jeevitha Bheema Pathakam (Indiramma Bheema Scheme) on June 2, 2026, coinciding with the state’s State Formation Day celebrations.

The Indiramma Bheema Scheme 2026 aims to provide financial security to families in the event of the death of their primary earning member.
The scheme is designed as a major social security initiative for poor and middle-class households across Telangana.

Key Features of the Scheme
Provides ₹5 lakh financial assistance to the nominee upon the death of the family’s primary breadwinner.
Covers approximately 1.15 crore poor and middle-class families across Telangana.
Functions as a social security programme aimed at reducing financial vulnerability.
An estimated budget of ₹4,000 crore allotted in state budget

Quick Revision Box

Particular	Details
Scheme Name	Indiramma Kutumba Jeevitha Bheema Pathakam
Launch Date	June 2, 2026
State	Telangana
Occasion	State Formation Day
Budget Allocation	₹4,000 crore (approx.)
Insurance Assistance	₹5 lakh
Beneficiaries	1.15 crore families
Objective	Financial protection for families after death of breadwinner

Practice MCQs

Q1. The Indiramma Kutumba Jeevitha Bheema Pathakam was launched by which state government?

a) Andhra Pradesh
b) Telangana
c) Karnataka
d) Tamil Nadu

Answer: (b) Telangana — The scheme was launched by the Telangana government.

Q2. How much financial assistance is provided under the Indiramma Bheema Scheme 2026 upon the death of the primary breadwinner?

a) ₹2 lakh
b) ₹3 lakh
c) ₹5 lakh
d) ₹10 lakh

Answer: (c) ₹5 lakh — The nominee receives ₹5 lakh as financial assistance.

Q3. Approximately how many families are covered under the scheme?

a) 50 lakh
b) 75 lakh
c) 90 lakh
d) 1.15 crore

Answer: (d) 1.15 crore — The scheme covers around 1.15 crore families.

Q4. The Indiramma Bheema Scheme 2026 was launched on which occasion?

a) Republic Day
b) Independence Day
c) Telangana State Formation Day
d) Constitution Day

Answer: (c) Telangana State Formation Day — It was launched on June 2, 2026.

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Matsya 6000 Ocean Operations 2026 Explained

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, Science and Technology Current Affairs / PSCchronicles team

Why in News?

India’s first indigenously developed manned deep-sea submersible, Matsya 6000, is expected to begin initial ocean operations this year with shallow-water demonstrations up to 500 metres, according to the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT).

The development is part of the Samudrayaan Project under the Deep Ocean Mission of the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
The submersible will support marine biodiversity studies and exploration of deep-sea mineral resources.

What is Matsya 6000?

Matsya 6000 is India’s first human-carrying deep-sea submersible designed to transport scientists into the deep ocean.

Key features include:

Diving capability up to 6,000 metres
Capacity to carry a crew for scientific missions
12–16 hours of normal underwater operations
96-hour emergency life-support system
Indigenous technology developed by NIOT, Chennai

The submersible is expected to facilitate exploration of polymetallic nodules and other mineral resources located in the deep ocean.

Background: Deep Ocean Mission

The Deep Ocean Mission was launched in 2021 by the Ministry of Earth Sciences to develop technologies for sustainable exploration and utilization of ocean resources.

Major Components of Deep Ocean Mission

Development of technologies for deep-sea mining and manned submersibles.
Ocean climate change advisory services.
Exploration and conservation of deep-sea biodiversity.
Deep Ocean Survey and Exploration.
Energy and freshwater generation from oceans.
Advanced Marine Station for Ocean Biology.

Samudrayaan Project

The Samudrayaan Project is a flagship initiative under the Deep Ocean Mission focused on manned deep-sea exploration. Matsya 6000 serves as its primary technological platform for carrying scientists to extreme ocean depths.

Significance

The launch of Matsya 6000 Ocean Operations 2026 will strengthen India’s capabilities in deep-sea exploration and resource assessment. It supports strategic access to critical minerals found in the seabed and advances research on marine ecosystems. The project also contributes to India’s long-term blue economy objectives and technological self-reliance in ocean sciences.

Quick Revision Box

Particular	Details
Project	Matsya 6000 Ocean Operations 2026
Developed by	National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT), Chennai
Ministry	Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES)
Associated Programme	Samudrayaan Project
Mission	Deep Ocean Mission
Initial Demonstration Depth	500 metres
Maximum Diving Capacity	6,000 metres
Operational Endurance	12–16 hours
Emergency Life Support	96 hours
Key Objectives	Deep-sea mining, biodiversity mapping, blue economy

Practice MCQs

Q1. Matsya 6000 has been developed by which organisation?

a) ISRO
b) DRDO
c) NIOT
d) CSIR

Answer: (c) NIOT — The National Institute of Ocean Technology developed Matsya 6000.

Q2. Matsya 6000 is associated with which project?

a) Mausam Project
b) Samudrayaan Project
c) Sagarmala Project
d) Project Varuna

Answer: (b) Samudrayaan Project — It is India’s manned deep-sea exploration initiative.

Q3. What is the maximum diving capability of Matsya 6000?

a) 500 m
b) 2,000 m
c) 4,000 m
d) 6,000 m

Answer: (d) 6,000 m — The submersible is designed for deep-ocean exploration up to 6,000 metres.

Q4. The Deep Ocean Mission was launched in which year?

a) 2019
b) 2020
c) 2021
d) 2022

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India has emerged as the global leader in issuing Internationally Recognized Certificates of Compliance (IRCCs) under the Nagoya Protocol

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, Environment and Ecology Current Affairs / PSCchronicles team

Why in News?

India has emerged as the global leader in issuing Internationally Recognized Certificates of Compliance (IRCCs) under the Nagoya Protocol on Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS).

Core Exam-Oriented Analysis

The Nagoya Protocol is a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) adopted during the 1992 Rio Earth Summit.

Its primary objective is to ensure the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources.

Key Features of the Nagoya Protocol

Adopted in 2010 at Nagoya, Japan.
Came into force in 2014.
Functions under the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
Focuses on:
- Access to genetic resources
- Benefit-sharing mechanisms
- Protection of indigenous and local community knowledge

What are IRCCs?

Internationally Recognized Certificates of Compliance (IRCCs) are official digital permits issued under the Nagoya Protocol.

These certificates confirm that:

Genetic resources were accessed legally.
Prior Informed Consent (PIC) was obtained.
Mutually Agreed Terms (MAT) were established.

IRCCs help prevent biopiracy and ensure that local communities receive benefits from the commercial use of biological resources and traditional knowledge.

India’s Institutional Framework under Biological Diversity Act, 2002

India implemented the CBD and Nagoya Protocol through the Biological Diversity Act, 2002. The institutional mechanism setup under this act is

1. National Biodiversity Authority (NBA)

Statutory authority headquartered in Chennai.
Grants approvals for access to biological resources by:
- Foreign individuals
- Foreign companies
- NRIs

2. State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs)

Operate at the state level.
Regulate commercial utilization of biological resources within states.

3. Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs)

Established by local bodies such as panchayats and municipalities.
Prepare People’s Biodiversity Registers (PBRs).
Protect traditional knowledge and ensure benefit-sharing for local communities.

Prelims Booster:

Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)

The Convention on Biological Diversity was adopted during the Rio Earth Summit, 1992.

It has three major objectives:

Conservation of biodiversity
Sustainable use of biological resources
Fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from genetic resources

India is a party to the CBD.

Important Concepts for Exams

Biopiracy

Unauthorized commercial exploitation of biological resources or traditional knowledge without compensation to indigenous communities.

People’s Biodiversity Registers (PBRs)

These are detailed records documenting:

Local flora and fauna
Traditional medicinal knowledge
Indigenous conservation practices

PBRs are maintained by Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs).

The Exam Trap

The Trap: The examiner may state that the Nagoya Protocol was adopted during the Rio Earth Summit in 1992.
The Fact: The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) was adopted in 1992, while the Nagoya Protocol was adopted later in 2010 in Japan.
The Trap: Questions may confuse the roles of NBA and State Biodiversity Boards.
The Fact: The NBA handles access requests from foreign entities, while SBBs regulate commercial utilization within states.

Question 1: Current Affairs Focus

Which of the following statements regarding the Nagoya Protocol is correct?

A) It was adopted during the Stockholm Conference of 1972
B) It focuses on fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from genetic resources
C) It deals exclusively with climate finance
D) It is administered by the World Trade Organization

Correct Answer: B

Detailed Explanation:
The Nagoya Protocol is a supplementary agreement under the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD). It specifically addresses the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources. It was adopted in 2010 in Nagoya, Japan. Therefore, Option B is correct.

Option A is incorrect because the Stockholm Conference dealt mainly with environmental protection.
Option C is incorrect because climate finance is linked more with UNFCCC mechanisms.
Option D is incorrect because the protocol functions under CBD, not WTO.

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Why is Abraham Accords 2026 Significant?

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, International Current Affairs / PSCchronicles team

Why in News?

US President Donald Trump stated that countries such as Saudi Arabia, Qatar, Egypt, Turkiye, and Pakistan should normalize relations with Israel under an expanded Abraham Accords 2026 framework.

The proposal was linked to broader negotiations aimed at ending the Iran-Israel conflict in West Asia

The statement has renewed global attention on the Abraham Accords, which were originally brokered by the United States in 2020 to establish diplomatic and economic relations between Israel and Arab nations. The accords reshaped Middle East diplomacy and altered long-standing regional alignments.

Key Facts About Abraham Accords 2026

Aspect	Details
Agreement Name	Abraham Accords
Brokered By	United States
Year of Original Signing	2020
Initial Signatories	Israel, UAE, Bahrain
Later Signatories	Sudan, Morocco
Current Context	Linked by Trump to Iran peace negotiations
Core Objective	Israel normalization with Arab nations
Strategic Impact	Shift in West Asian geopolitical alliances

Formation of I2U2 Group

The Abraham Accords also contributed to the emergence of the I2U2 Group, comprising India, Israel, UAE, and the USA.

Practice MCQs

Q1. The Abraham Accords were originally signed in:
a) 2018
b) 2019
c) 2020
d) 2022

Answer: (c) — The agreements were brokered by the United States in 2020.

Q2. Which among the following was NOT an initial signatory to the Abraham Accords?
a) Israel
b) UAE
c) Bahrain
d) Morocco

Answer: (d) — Morocco joined later after the initial agreements.

Q3. The I2U2 Group includes which of the following countries?
a) India, Israel, UAE, USA
b) India, Iran, UAE, USA
c) India, Israel, UK, USA
d) India, Israel, UAE, UK

Answer: (a) — I2U2 consists of India, Israel, UAE, and the USA.

Q4. The Abraham Accords mainly relate to:
a) Nuclear disarmament
b) Climate financing
c) Israel normalization with Arab nations
d) Global trade reforms

Answer: (c) — The accords aim at normalizing relations between Israel and Arab countries.

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Telangana government fixed December 2027 as the deadline for Devadula Lift Irrigation Scheme

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, Telangana Current Affairs / PSCchronicles team

Why in News?

The Telangana government has fixed December 2027 as the deadline for completing the Devadula Lift Irrigation Scheme 2026, officially known as the J. Chokka Rao Devadula Lift Irrigation Scheme (JCRDLIS).

The project, estimated at ₹18,400 crore, is designed to provide irrigation and drinking water to drought-prone upland regions of Telangana.
The scheme lifts water from the Godavari River at Devadula village in Mulugu district and distributes it across multiple districts through a large lift irrigation network.

Key Facts About Devadula Lift Irrigation Scheme 2026

Aspect	Details
Project Name	J. Chokka Rao Devadula Lift Irrigation Scheme (JCRDLIS)
State	Telangana
River Source	Godavari River
Intake Point	Devadula village, Mulugu district
Estimated Cost	₹18,400 crore
Completion Deadline	December 2027
Main Objective	Irrigation and drinking water supply
Beneficiary Area	Around 5.57–6.21 lakh acres
Type of Project	Lift irrigation scheme
Districts Covered	10 districts of Telangana

What is a Lift Irrigation Scheme?

A lift irrigation scheme transports water from lower elevations to higher-altitude regions using pumps and canals. Such projects are important in plateau and drought-prone areas where gravity-based irrigation is difficult.

Practice MCQs

Q1. The J. Chokka Rao Devadula Lift Irrigation Scheme draws water from which river?
a) Krishna
b) Tungabhadra
c) Godavari
d) Pennar

Answer: (c) — The scheme lifts water from the Godavari River.

Q2. Devadula village, associated with JCRDLIS, is located in:
a) Karimnagar district
b) Mulugu district
c) Siddipet district
d) Nalgonda district

Answer: (b) — The intake point is located in Mulugu district.

Q3. The Devadula Lift Irrigation Scheme mainly aims to benefit:
a) Coastal fishing zones
b) Desert regions
c) Drought-prone upland areas
d) Himalayan valleys

Answer: (c) — The scheme targets drought-prone upland regions of Telangana.

Q4. The estimated cost of JCRDLIS is:
a) ₹8,400 crore
b) ₹10,200 crore
c) ₹14,500 crore
d) ₹18,400 crore

Answer: (d) — The Telangana government estimated the project cost at ₹18,400 crore.

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Telangana government fixed December 2027 as the deadline for Devadula Lift Irrigation Scheme Read More »

India’s 1st Autonomous Maritime Shipyard to comeup in Nellore

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, Andhra Pradesh Current Affairs / PSCchronicles team

Why in News?

Andhra Pradesh government approved the establishment of India’s first dedicated Autonomous Maritime Shipyard 2026 at Juvvaladinne Fishing Harbour in Bogole mandal of Nellore district.

The facility will be developed by Sagar Defence Engineering Private Limited to support autonomous vessel manufacturing and maritime systems development.

Key Facts:

Project	India’s first dedicated autonomous maritime shipyard
Location	Juvvaladinne Fishing Harbour, Nellore district, Andhra Pradesh
Mandal	Bogole mandal
Company	Sagar Defence Engineering Pvt Ltd
Sector	Maritime defence manufacturing
Focus Area	Autonomous vessel systems and maritime technologies

What Will the Facility Develop?

The proposed shipyard will focus on:

Autonomous surface vessels
Maritime surveillance systems
Defence-oriented unmanned platforms
Indigenous marine technologies

Practice MCQs

Q1. India’s first dedicated autonomous maritime shipyard will be established in which state?
a) Gujarat
b) Tamil Nadu
c) Andhra Pradesh
d) Odisha

Answer: (c) — The autonomous maritime shipyard was approved by the Andhra Pradesh government.

Q2. The proposed autonomous maritime shipyard will be established at:
a) Visakhapatnam Port
b) Kakinada Port
c) Juvvaladinne Fishing Harbour
d) Krishnapatnam Port

Answer: (c) — The facility will be set up at Juvvaladinne Fishing Harbour in Nellore district.

Q3. Which company will establish the autonomous maritime shipyard?
a) Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders
b) Cochin Shipyard Limited
c) Garden Reach Shipbuilders
d) Sagar Defence Engineering Pvt Ltd

Answer: (d) — Sagar Defence Engineering Pvt Ltd will develop the facility.

Q4. The Autonomous Maritime Shipyard 2026 is mainly associated with:
a) Textile manufacturing
b) Aerospace tourism
c) Autonomous vessel systems
d) Inland water irrigation

Answer: (c) — The facility focuses on autonomous vessel systems and maritime technologies.

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India’s 1st Autonomous Maritime Shipyard to comeup in Nellore Read More »