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India has emerged as the global leader in issuing Internationally Recognized Certificates of Compliance (IRCCs) under the Nagoya Protocol

Why in News?

India has emerged as the global leader in issuing Internationally Recognized Certificates of Compliance (IRCCs) under the Nagoya Protocol on Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS).

Nagoya Protocol

Core Exam-Oriented Analysis

The Nagoya Protocol is a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) adopted during the 1992 Rio Earth Summit.

  • Its primary objective is to ensure the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources.

Key Features of the Nagoya Protocol

  • Adopted in 2010 at Nagoya, Japan.
  • Came into force in 2014.
  • Functions under the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
  • Focuses on:
    • Access to genetic resources
    • Benefit-sharing mechanisms
    • Protection of indigenous and local community knowledge

What are IRCCs?

Internationally Recognized Certificates of Compliance (IRCCs) are official digital permits issued under the Nagoya Protocol.

These certificates confirm that:

  • Genetic resources were accessed legally.
  • Prior Informed Consent (PIC) was obtained.
  • Mutually Agreed Terms (MAT) were established.

IRCCs help prevent biopiracy and ensure that local communities receive benefits from the commercial use of biological resources and traditional knowledge.

India’s Institutional Framework under Biological Diversity Act, 2002

India implemented the CBD and Nagoya Protocol through the Biological Diversity Act, 2002. The institutional mechanism setup under this act is

1. National Biodiversity Authority (NBA)

  • Statutory authority headquartered in Chennai.
  • Grants approvals for access to biological resources by:
    • Foreign individuals
    • Foreign companies
    • NRIs

2. State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs)

  • Operate at the state level.
  • Regulate commercial utilization of biological resources within states.

3. Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs)

  • Established by local bodies such as panchayats and municipalities.
  • Prepare People’s Biodiversity Registers (PBRs).
  • Protect traditional knowledge and ensure benefit-sharing for local communities.

Prelims Booster:

Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)

The Convention on Biological Diversity was adopted during the Rio Earth Summit, 1992.

It has three major objectives:

  1. Conservation of biodiversity
  2. Sustainable use of biological resources
  3. Fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from genetic resources

India is a party to the CBD.

Important Concepts for Exams

Biopiracy

Unauthorized commercial exploitation of biological resources or traditional knowledge without compensation to indigenous communities.

People’s Biodiversity Registers (PBRs)

These are detailed records documenting:

  • Local flora and fauna
  • Traditional medicinal knowledge
  • Indigenous conservation practices

PBRs are maintained by Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs).

The Exam Trap

  • The Trap: The examiner may state that the Nagoya Protocol was adopted during the Rio Earth Summit in 1992.
  • The Fact: The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) was adopted in 1992, while the Nagoya Protocol was adopted later in 2010 in Japan.
  • The Trap: Questions may confuse the roles of NBA and State Biodiversity Boards.
  • The Fact: The NBA handles access requests from foreign entities, while SBBs regulate commercial utilization within states.

Question 1: Current Affairs Focus

Which of the following statements regarding the Nagoya Protocol is correct?

  • A) It was adopted during the Stockholm Conference of 1972
  • B) It focuses on fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from genetic resources
  • C) It deals exclusively with climate finance
  • D) It is administered by the World Trade Organization

Correct Answer: B

Detailed Explanation:
The Nagoya Protocol is a supplementary agreement under the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD). It specifically addresses the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources. It was adopted in 2010 in Nagoya, Japan. Therefore, Option B is correct.

  • Option A is incorrect because the Stockholm Conference dealt mainly with environmental protection.
  • Option C is incorrect because climate finance is linked more with UNFCCC mechanisms.
  • Option D is incorrect because the protocol functions under CBD, not WTO.

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Why is Abraham Accords 2026 Significant?

Why in News?

US President Donald Trump stated that countries such as Saudi Arabia, Qatar, Egypt, Turkiye, and Pakistan should normalize relations with Israel under an expanded Abraham Accords 2026 framework.

  • The proposal was linked to broader negotiations aimed at ending the Iran-Israel conflict in West Asia
Abraham accords

The statement has renewed global attention on the Abraham Accords, which were originally brokered by the United States in 2020 to establish diplomatic and economic relations between Israel and Arab nations. The accords reshaped Middle East diplomacy and altered long-standing regional alignments.

Key Facts About Abraham Accords 2026

AspectDetails
Agreement NameAbraham Accords
Brokered ByUnited States
Year of Original Signing2020
Initial SignatoriesIsrael, UAE, Bahrain
Later SignatoriesSudan, Morocco
Current ContextLinked by Trump to Iran peace negotiations
Core ObjectiveIsrael normalization with Arab nations
Strategic ImpactShift in West Asian geopolitical alliances

Formation of I2U2 Group

The Abraham Accords also contributed to the emergence of the I2U2 Group, comprising India, Israel, UAE, and the USA.

Practice MCQs

Q1. The Abraham Accords were originally signed in:
a) 2018
b) 2019
c) 2020
d) 2022

Answer: (c) β€” The agreements were brokered by the United States in 2020.

Q2. Which among the following was NOT an initial signatory to the Abraham Accords?
a) Israel
b) UAE
c) Bahrain
d) Morocco

Answer: (d) β€” Morocco joined later after the initial agreements.

Q3. The I2U2 Group includes which of the following countries?
a) India, Israel, UAE, USA
b) India, Iran, UAE, USA
c) India, Israel, UK, USA
d) India, Israel, UAE, UK

Answer: (a) β€” I2U2 consists of India, Israel, UAE, and the USA.

Q4. The Abraham Accords mainly relate to:
a) Nuclear disarmament
b) Climate financing
c) Israel normalization with Arab nations
d) Global trade reforms

Answer: (c) β€” The accords aim at normalizing relations between Israel and Arab countries.

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Telangana government fixed December 2027 as the deadline for Devadula Lift Irrigation Scheme

Why in News?

The Telangana government has fixed December 2027 as the deadline for completing the Devadula Lift Irrigation Scheme 2026, officially known as the J. Chokka Rao Devadula Lift Irrigation Scheme (JCRDLIS).

  • The project, estimated at β‚Ή18,400 crore, is designed to provide irrigation and drinking water to drought-prone upland regions of Telangana.
  • The scheme lifts water from the Godavari River at Devadula village in Mulugu district and distributes it across multiple districts through a large lift irrigation network.
Devadula Lift Irrigation Scheme

Key Facts About Devadula Lift Irrigation Scheme 2026

AspectDetails
Project NameJ. Chokka Rao Devadula Lift Irrigation Scheme (JCRDLIS)
StateTelangana
River SourceGodavari River
Intake PointDevadula village, Mulugu district
Estimated Costβ‚Ή18,400 crore
Completion DeadlineDecember 2027
Main ObjectiveIrrigation and drinking water supply
Beneficiary AreaAround 5.57–6.21 lakh acres
Type of ProjectLift irrigation scheme
Districts Covered10 districts of Telangana

What is a Lift Irrigation Scheme?

A lift irrigation scheme transports water from lower elevations to higher-altitude regions using pumps and canals. Such projects are important in plateau and drought-prone areas where gravity-based irrigation is difficult.

Practice MCQs

Q1. The J. Chokka Rao Devadula Lift Irrigation Scheme draws water from which river?
a) Krishna
b) Tungabhadra
c) Godavari
d) Pennar

Answer: (c) β€” The scheme lifts water from the Godavari River.

Q2. Devadula village, associated with JCRDLIS, is located in:
a) Karimnagar district
b) Mulugu district
c) Siddipet district
d) Nalgonda district

Answer: (b) β€” The intake point is located in Mulugu district.

Q3. The Devadula Lift Irrigation Scheme mainly aims to benefit:
a) Coastal fishing zones
b) Desert regions
c) Drought-prone upland areas
d) Himalayan valleys

Answer: (c) β€” The scheme targets drought-prone upland regions of Telangana.

Q4. The estimated cost of JCRDLIS is:
a) β‚Ή8,400 crore
b) β‚Ή10,200 crore
c) β‚Ή14,500 crore
d) β‚Ή18,400 crore

Answer: (d) β€” The Telangana government estimated the project cost at β‚Ή18,400 crore.

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India’s 1st Autonomous Maritime Shipyard to comeup in Nellore

Why in News?

Andhra Pradesh government approved the establishment of India’s first dedicated Autonomous Maritime Shipyard 2026 at Juvvaladinne Fishing Harbour in Bogole mandal of Nellore district.

  • The facility will be developed by Sagar Defence Engineering Private Limited to support autonomous vessel manufacturing and maritime systems development.
Autonomous Maritime Shipyard

Key Facts:

ProjectIndia’s first dedicated autonomous maritime shipyard
LocationJuvvaladinne Fishing Harbour, Nellore district, Andhra Pradesh
MandalBogole mandal
CompanySagar Defence Engineering Pvt Ltd
SectorMaritime defence manufacturing
Focus AreaAutonomous vessel systems and maritime technologies

What Will the Facility Develop?

The proposed shipyard will focus on:

  • Autonomous surface vessels
  • Maritime surveillance systems
  • Defence-oriented unmanned platforms
  • Indigenous marine technologies

Practice MCQs

Q1. India’s first dedicated autonomous maritime shipyard will be established in which state?
a) Gujarat
b) Tamil Nadu
c) Andhra Pradesh
d) Odisha

Answer: (c) β€” The autonomous maritime shipyard was approved by the Andhra Pradesh government.

Q2. The proposed autonomous maritime shipyard will be established at:
a) Visakhapatnam Port
b) Kakinada Port
c) Juvvaladinne Fishing Harbour
d) Krishnapatnam Port

Answer: (c) β€” The facility will be set up at Juvvaladinne Fishing Harbour in Nellore district.

Q3. Which company will establish the autonomous maritime shipyard?
a) Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders
b) Cochin Shipyard Limited
c) Garden Reach Shipbuilders
d) Sagar Defence Engineering Pvt Ltd

Answer: (d) β€” Sagar Defence Engineering Pvt Ltd will develop the facility.

Q4. The Autonomous Maritime Shipyard 2026 is mainly associated with:
a) Textile manufacturing
b) Aerospace tourism
c) Autonomous vessel systems
d) Inland water irrigation

Answer: (c) β€” The facility focuses on autonomous vessel systems and maritime technologies.

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Andhra Pradesh Cabinet approved the establishment of AP FIRST

Why in News?

Andhra Pradesh Cabinet approved the establishment of AP FIRST (Andhra Pradesh Futuristic Innovation and Research in Science and Technology) in Tirupati to strengthen the state’s high-technology ecosystem.

AP FIRST
  • The AP FIRST Innovation Platform 2026 will be developed in collaboration with premier institutions such as IIT-Tirupati and IISER-Tirupati.
  • The initiative aims to accelerate innovation in strategic sectors including Artificial Intelligence, aerospace, defence R&D, semiconductors and cyber security.
  • It is also designed to bridge the gap between industry and academia by creating a sustainable research ecosystem for youth.

Significance:

The initiative can strengthen Andhra Pradesh’s position in emerging technologies such as quantum technology and semiconductor research. Collaboration with institutions like IIT Tirupati and IISER Tirupati can improve industry-ready skill development and research output.

The platform is also important for defence R&D and clean energy innovation, sectors that are strategically important for India’s economic growth and national security.

Quick Revision Points

  • AP FIRST approved by Andhra Pradesh Cabinet
  • Full form: Andhra Pradesh Futuristic Innovation and Research in Science and Technology
  • Location: Tirupati
  • Partner institutions: IIT-Tirupati and IISER-Tirupati
  • AP FIRST Innovation Platform 2026 focuses on AI and quantum technology
  • Key sectors include semiconductor research and defence R&D
  • Linked with industry-academia collaboration
  • Supports innovation and startup ecosystem in Andhra Pradesh

Practice MCQs

Q1. AP FIRST was approved by which authority?
a) NITI Aayog
b) Andhra Pradesh Cabinet
c) Ministry of Education
d) DRDO

Answer: (b) β€” The Andhra Pradesh Cabinet approved AP FIRST.

Q2. Andhra Pradesh Futuristic Innovation and Research in Science and Technology will be established in which city?
a) Visakhapatnam
b) Vijayawada
c) Tirupati
d) Kurnool

Answer: (c) β€” Tirupati is the proposed location of AP FIRST.

Q3. Which among the following sectors is included under AP FIRST focus areas?
a) Quantum technology
b) Aerospace
c) Semiconductors
d) All of the above

Answer: (d) β€” AP FIRST focuses on all these high-technology sectors.

Q4. Which Fundamental Duty promotes scientific temper in India?
a) Article 21
b) Article 19
c) Article 51A(h)
d) Article 32

Answer: (c) β€” Article 51A(h) promotes scientific temper and inquiry.

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PM India’s first PM MITRA Park in Telangana’s Warangal: Overview

Why in News?

India’s first functional PM MITRA Park 2026 has been inaugurated at Warangal in Telangana. Developed under the Pradhan Mantri Mega Integrated Textile Region and Apparel (PM MITRA) scheme, the project is aimed at transforming India into a global textile manufacturing hub

  • The park integrates the entire textile value chain under one ecosystem and operationalizes the government’s β€œ5F” vision
PM MITRA PARK

Key Facts About PM MITRA Park 2026

AspectDetails
ProjectPM MITRA Park
LocationWarangal, Telangana
MinistryMinistry of Textiles
Project Costβ‚Ή1,695.54 crore
Area1,327 acres
Expected InvestmentsMore than β‚Ή6,000 crore
Employment PotentialAround 24,400 jobs
Focus AreaIntegrated textile manufacturing ecosystem

Significance

The PM MITRA Park 2026 at Warangal is expected to boost India’s textile exports by creating an integrated apparel manufacturing ecosystem. The project may also strengthen women’s employment in textile industries and reduce fragmentation in textile production chains

What is PM MITRA?

The Pradhan Mantri Mega Integrated Textile Region and Apparel (PM MITRA) scheme is a flagship initiative aimed at creating world-class textile infrastructure.

  • It seeks to reduce logistics costs and improve global competitiveness by integrating spinning, weaving, processing, dyeing and garment manufacturing in a single location.
  • The scheme aims to achieve 5F-Farm to Fibre to Factory to Fashion to Foreign

Quick Revision Points

  • India’s first functional PM MITRA Park inaugurated at Warangal
  • Total project cost: β‚Ή1,695.54 crore
  • Spread across 1,327 acres
  • Expected investments: over β‚Ή6,000 crore
  • Projected employment: 24,400 jobs
  • Based on β€œ5F” vision
  • Implemented by Ministry of Textiles
  • Total PM MITRA locations in India: 7

Practice MCQs

Q1. India’s first functional PM MITRA Park has been inaugurated in:
a) Surat
b) Coimbatore
c) Warangal
d) Indore

Answer: (c) β€” Warangal in Telangana hosts India’s first operational PM MITRA Park.

Q2. PM MITRA scheme is implemented by:
a) Ministry of Commerce
b) Ministry of MSME
c) Ministry of Heavy Industries
d) Ministry of Textiles

Answer: (d) β€” The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Textiles.

Q3. The β€œ5F” vision associated with PM MITRA stands for:
a) Farm to Fibre to Factory to Fashion to Foreign
b) Fibre to Factory to Finance to Fashion to Foreign
c) Farm to Fabric to Fashion to Foreign to Franchise
d) Fibre to Factory to Fabric to Fashion to Foreign

Answer: (a) β€” The scheme follows the integrated 5F textile value chain vision.

Q4. The PM MITRA Park at Warangal is expected to attract investments worth:
a) β‚Ή2,000 crore
b) β‚Ή4,000 crore
c) β‚Ή6,000 crore
d) β‚Ή10,000 crore

Answer: (c) β€” The park is expected to attract over β‚Ή6,000 crore investments.

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Update: AMCA defence hub at Puttaparthi

Why in news?

India has laid the foundation stone for the AMCA Defence Hub 2026 at Puttaparthi in Andhra Pradesh. The project is part of India’s push toward indigenous defence manufacturing and fifth-generation stealth fighter capability. The new Aircraft Integration and Flight Testing Complex will become the central facility for testing and certification of India’s upcoming Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA).

What is AMCA?

The Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) is India’s proposed indigenous fifth-generation stealth fighter aircraft being developed to enhance self-reliance in advanced military aviation technology. The aircraft is expected to possess stealth features, internal weapon bays, advanced avionics and supercruise capability.

Major Defence Projects in AP

Defence Project in Andhra PradeshLocation
AMCA Aircraft Integration ComplexPuttaparthi
Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL) missile plantDonakonda, Prakasam district
Kalyani Strategic Systems unitMadakasira, Anantapur district
Sagar Defence EngineeringJuvvaladinne, Nellore district
HFCL defence manufacturing unitSri Sathya Sai district

Quick Revision Points

  • AMCA project foundation stone laid at Puttaparthi
  • Total project value: β‚Ή15,803 crore
  • Facility spread across 650 acres
  • Located in Sri Sathya Sai district, Andhra Pradesh
  • Focus on fifth-generation stealth fighter development
  • Expected direct jobs: 7,500
  • BDL missile plant coming up at Donakonda
  • AMCA Defence Hub 2026 linked to Aatmanirbhar Bharat

Practice MCQs

Q1. The AMCA Aircraft Integration and Flight Testing Complex is being established in:
a) Visakhapatnam
b) Donakonda
c) Puttaparthi
d) Tirupati

Answer: (c) β€” The facility is being established at Puttaparthi in Sri Sathya Sai district.

Q2. The AMCA project is primarily related to:
a) Missile defence systems
b) Naval submarines
c) Stealth fighter aircraft
d) Space launch vehicles

Answer: (c) β€” AMCA is India’s indigenous fifth-generation stealth fighter programme.

Q3. Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL) is establishing a missile manufacturing plant at:
a) Nellore
b) Donakonda
c) Madakasira
d) Kurnool

Answer: (b) β€” BDL’s missile manufacturing facility is coming up at Donakonda in Prakasam district.

Q4. The AMCA Defence Hub 2026 project is expected to create approximately:
a) 2,500 jobs
b) 5,000 jobs
c) 7,500 jobs
d) 10,000 jobs

Answer: (c) β€” The project is expected to generate around 7,500 direct high-skilled jobs.

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April 4th Week Current affairs MCQs

Apr 2026 – Week 4 Current Affairs MCQ (22-30 Apr)

Fresh 15-question weekly practice set with 5 easy, 5 medium and 5 difficult questions for PSC exam revision.

Practice 2026 Weekly Current Affairs MCQ

Q1. Maharashtra approved its Compressed Biogas Policy 2026 on which date?

Easy
  1. 22 April 2026
  2. 5 May 2026
  3. 1 April 2026
  4. 15 April 2026
Show Answer
Answer: A. 22 April 2026
The old April Week 4 quiz noted 22 April 2026 as the approval date for the Maharashtra CBG Policy.

Q2. The outlay for Maharashtra CBG Policy 2026-27 was:

Easy
  1. Rs 500 crore
  2. Rs 1,000 crore
  3. Rs 200 crore
  4. Rs 750 crore
Show Answer
Answer: A. Rs 500 crore
The stated outlay for 2026-27 was Rs 500 crore.

Q3. India’s digital payments volume in January 2026 was reported as:

Easy
  1. 21.70 billion transactions
  2. 18 billion transactions
  3. 25 billion transactions
  4. 15 billion transactions
Show Answer
Answer: A. 21.70 billion transactions
January 2026 digital payments volume was reported at 21.70 billion transactions.

Q4. The value of India’s digital payments in January 2026 was:

Easy
  1. Rs 28.33 lakh crore
  2. Rs 20 lakh crore
  3. Rs 30 lakh crore
  4. Rs 25 lakh crore
Show Answer
Answer: A. Rs 28.33 lakh crore
The reported value was Rs 28.33 lakh crore.

Q5. INS Aridhaman is best described as a:

Easy
  1. Nuclear submarine
  2. Aircraft carrier
  3. Destroyer
  4. Frigate
Show Answer
Answer: A. Nuclear submarine
INS Aridhaman is associated with India’s nuclear submarine capability.

Q6. UPI’s share of retail digital transactions was reported as:

Medium
  1. 81%
  2. 49%
  3. 70%
  4. 60%
Show Answer
Answer: A. 81%
UPI was reported to account for 81% of retail digital transactions.

Q7. India’s share of global real-time payments was reported as:

Medium
  1. 49%
  2. 30%
  3. 81%
  4. 25%
Show Answer
Answer: A. 49%
India was reported to hold 49% of global real-time payments.

Q8. The River Basin Management Scheme 2026-31 had funding of:

Medium
  1. Rs 2,183 crore
  2. Rs 5,000 crore
  3. Rs 1,000 crore
  4. Rs 3,000 crore
Show Answer
Answer: A. Rs 2,183 crore
The scheme funding was stated as Rs 2,183 crore for 2026-31.

Q9. The Delhi-Dehradun Economic Corridor wildlife underpasses were reported to cover what length?

Medium
  1. 97 km
  2. 20 km
  3. 50 km
  4. 120 km
Show Answer
Answer: A. 97 km
The old quiz recorded 97 km of wildlife underpasses connected with the corridor.

Q10. Jan Vishwas 2.0 Bill aims mainly to:

Medium
  1. Decriminalise minor business offences
  2. Increase all criminal penalties
  3. Nationalise private firms
  4. Privatise all public services
Show Answer
Answer: A. Decriminalise minor business offences
The Bill focuses on easing compliance by decriminalising minor offences.

Q11. Consider digital payments: 1. January 2026 volume was 21.70 billion. 2. Reported value was Rs 28.33 lakh crore. 3. UPI share of retail digital transactions was 81%. Which is correct?

Difficult
  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3
All three data points were part of the April Week 4 digital payments topic.

Q12. Which pair is correctly matched?

Difficult
  1. KABIL – Critical minerals
  2. Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan Bill – Defence exports
  3. Womaniya – River management
  4. INS Aridhaman – Digital payments
Show Answer
Answer: A. KABIL – Critical minerals
KABIL is linked with critical minerals. The other pairs mix unrelated topics.

Q13. The Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan Bill relates mainly to:

Difficult
  1. Higher education regulation
  2. School midday meals only
  3. Health insurance only
  4. Fertiliser imports
Show Answer
Answer: A. Higher education regulation
The bill was connected with higher education regulatory reform.

Q14. India’s fertiliser import dependency and global urea price rise were reported as:

Difficult
  1. 70% dependency and 65% price rise
  2. 30% dependency and 20% price rise
  3. 49% dependency and 81% price rise
  4. 10% dependency and 5% price rise
Show Answer
Answer: A. 70% dependency and 65% price rise
The Week 4 quiz highlighted 70% import dependency and a 65% global urea price rise.

Q15. Which statement best connects CBG policy and river basin management?

Difficult
  1. Both relate to sustainable resource management: clean energy from organic waste and coordinated water governance
  2. Both are only defence procurement schemes
  3. Both concern Rajya Sabha nominations
  4. Both are limited to private banking
Show Answer
Answer: A. Both relate to sustainable resource management: clean energy from organic waste and coordinated water governance
CBG policy supports clean energy and waste use, while river basin management supports water-resource planning.

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Renewable Energy Practice Questions

Renewable energy practice questions are important for UPSC, APPSC, TGPSC and State PSC exams. These questions cover solar energy, wind energy, hydropower, bioenergy, clean energy technologies and sustainable energy sources for quick revision.

1. Renewable energy is defined as energy from?

 
 
 
 

2. Largest source of renewable electricity globally?

 
 
 
 

3. Photovoltaic cells convert?

 
 
 
 

4. India’s renewable energy target for 2030?

 
 
 
 

5. India achieved 175 GW renewable target originally for?

 
 
 
 

6. National Solar Mission launched under?

 
 
 
 

7. PM-KUSUM scheme relates to?

 
 
 
 

8. Largest solar park in India?

 
 
 
 

9. Pavagada Solar Park located in?

 
 
 
 

10. Rewa Ultra Mega Solar Park in?

 
 
 
 

11. Wind energy potential highest in which Indian state?

 
 
 
 

12. India’s first offshore wind project planned in?

 
 
 
 

13. Hydropower classified as renewable but large dams criticized for?

 
 
 
 

14. Small hydro in India defined as up to?

 
 
 
 

15. Pumped storage hydropower used for?

 
 
 
 

16. Biomass energy in India mainly from?

 
 
 
 

17. Biogas主要 component?

 
 
 
 

18. GOBARdhan scheme promotes?

 
 
 
 

19. Geothermal energy in India potential site?

 
 
 
 

20. Tidal energy potential in India at?

 
 
 
 

21. Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion uses?

 
 
 
 

22. Green hydrogen produced by?

 
 
 
 

23. National Green Hydrogen Mission India target 2030?

 
 
 
 

24. Levelized Cost of Energy (LCOE) for solar in India now?

 
 
 
 

25. Renewable Purchase Obligation (RPO) mandates?

 
 
 
 

26. International Solar Alliance HQ?

 
 
 
 

27. ISA launched by India and?

 
 
 
 

28. One Sun One World One Grid initiative by?

 
 
 
 

29. Wind turbine capacity factor in India typically?

 
 
 
 

30. Solar capacity factor in India?

 
 
 
 

31. Largest renewable energy producer country?

 
 
 
 

32. India ranks globally in renewable capacity?

 
 
 
 

33. Net metering allows?

 
 
 
 

34. Floating solar advantages?

 
 
 
 

35. Largest floating solar in India?

 
 
 
 

36. Concentrated Solar Power (CSP) uses?

 
 
 
 

37. Main barrier for renewable integration?

 
 
 
 

38. Battery storage helps renewables by?

 
 
 
 

39. India’s first green hydrogen plant?

 
 
 
 

40. Renewable energy share in India’s electricity mix 2024?

 
 
 
 

41. UDAY scheme relates to?

 
 
 
 

42. Feed-in Tariff is?

 
 
 
 

43. Which state leads in rooftop solar?

 
 
 
 

44. Offshore wind advantage over onshore?

 
 
 
 

45. Bio-CNG produced from?

 
 
 
 

46. Ethanol blending target India 2025?

 
 
 
 

47. Second-generation biofuels use?

 
 
 
 

48. Renewable energy certificates (RECs) are?

 
 
 
 

49. Solar rooftop subsidy in India via?

 
 
 
 

50. Main environmental benefit of renewables?

 
 
 
 


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Renewable Energy Practice Questions

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Skyroot Becomes India’s 1st Space-Tech Unicorn

Why in News?

Skyroot Aerospace Unicorn 2026 gained attention after the Hyderabad-based startup achieved a valuation of $1.1 billion following a fresh funding round of nearly $60 million. The milestone comes weeks before the expected launch of Vikram-1, India’s first privately developed orbital rocket.

SKyroot aerospace unicorn

Key Facts About Skyroot Aerospace Unicorn 2026

AspectDetails
CompanySkyroot Aerospace
HeadquartersHyderabad
Valuation$1.1 billion
Fresh Funding RaisedNearly $60 million
Status AchievedIndia’s first space-tech unicorn
Upcoming MissionVikram-1 orbital rocket launch
Launch SiteSatish Dhawan Space Centre (SHAR)
Rocket Series Named AfterDr. Vikram Sarabhai

Vikram Series of Launch Vehicles

VehicleTypeKey Details
Vikram-SSub-orbital rocketFirst privately developed Indian rocket to reach space in November 2022
Vikram-1Orbital launch vehicleMaiden flight expected in mid-2026
Vikram-2Heavy-lift launch vehicleDesigned for 1-tonne payload to Low Earth Orbit by 2027

Significance of Skyroot Aerospace Unicorn 2026

The emergence of Skyroot as India’s first space-tech startup unicorn demonstrates the success of India’s space sector liberalisation. It reflects growing investor confidence in indigenous launch technology and commercial space missions.

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