2026 current affairs Archives

India’s Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR): 5.33 MMT Capacity & Phase II

Why in News

Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPRs) of India currently have an active storage capacity of 5.33 Million Metric Tonnes (MMT) of crude oil, providing approximately 9.5 days of emergency fuel cover. To move closer to the International Energy Agency’s (IEA) 90-day benchmark, India is implementing Phase II to add 6.5 MMT of capacity through a Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model, including a first-ever private-sector commercial-cum-strategic reserve.

About India’s Strategic Petroleum Reserves — Key Facts for Prelims

Managing Body

ISPRL — Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserve Limited.
Type: Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) under the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
Established in 2004.

Storage Method

Crude oil is stored in underground rock caverns along India’s coastlines — safer than overground tanks against natural disasters and attacks.

Phase I — Current Capacity (5.33 MMT)

Location	State	Capacity
Padur	Karnataka	2.50 MMT (largest)
Mangaluru	Karnataka	1.50 MMT
Visakhapatnam	Andhra Pradesh	1.33 MMT
Total Phase I		5.33 MMT (~9.5 days)

Phase II Expansion — 6.5 MMT (PPP Model)

Location	State	Capacity	Note
Chandikhol	Odisha	4.0 MMT	Brand new underground cavern
Padur Phase II	Karnataka	2.5 MMT	Expansion of existing site
Total Phase II		6.5 MMT

Padur Phase II mandate awarded to Megha Engineering & Infrastructures Ltd — India’s first private-sector commercial-cum-strategic reserve.
Total post-Phase II capacity: 11.83 MMT (~22 days cover).

IEA Benchmark

The International Energy Agency (IEA) recommends member countries maintain a 90-day strategic petroleum reserve. India’s current cover is only ~9.5 days — highlighting the urgency of Phase II expansion.

Why SPRs Matter — Exam Link

Protects against global oil supply shocks (e.g., wars, sanctions, OPEC cuts).
Supports energy security as India imports ~85% of its crude oil needs.
Part of India’s Atmanirbhar Bharat energy independence strategy.

Quick Revision Table

Fact	Detail
Phase I total capacity	5.33 MMT
Emergency days cover (Phase I)	~9.5 days
Managing body	ISPRL (SPV under Min. of Petroleum & Natural Gas)
Largest Phase I site	Padur, Karnataka (2.50 MMT)
Phase II total addition	6.5 MMT
New Phase II site	Chandikhol, Odisha (4.0 MMT)
IEA recommended benchmark	90 days
Post-Phase II total capacity	11.83 MMT (~22 days)
Storage method	Underground rock caverns
Padur Phase II operator	Megha Engineering & Infrastructures Ltd

Trap / Confusing Points

Common Confusion	Correct Fact
ISPRL is under Ministry of Finance	❌ Under Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
All SPR sites are in Karnataka	❌ Phase I: 2 in Karnataka, 1 in Andhra Pradesh; Phase II adds Odisha
India has 90 days of reserve cover	❌ Current cover is only ~9.5 days; 90 days is the IEA benchmark
ISPRL is a ministry or department	❌ It is a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV)
Chandikhol is an existing Phase I site	❌ Chandikhol is a new Phase II site in Odisha
Largest site is Visakhapatnam	❌ Largest is Padur, Karnataka at 2.50 MMT
SPRs stored in overground tanks	❌ Stored in underground rock caverns

Practice MCQs

1. India’s Strategic Petroleum Reserves are managed by:
a. Oil India Limited
b. ONGC
c. ISPRL
d. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board

Ans: C
ISPRL (Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserve Limited) is the Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) under the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas that manages India’s SPRs.

2. Which of the following is the largest Strategic Petroleum Reserve site in India (Phase I)?
a. Visakhapatnam
b. Mangaluru
c. Chandikhol
d. Padur

Ans: D
Padur, Karnataka holds the largest Phase I SPR capacity at 2.50 MMT. Note: Chandikhol is a Phase II (new) site, not Phase I.

3. India’s current Strategic Petroleum Reserves provide approximately how many days of emergency fuel cover?
a. 90 days
b. 30 days
c. 22 days
d. 9.5 days

Ans: D
The Phase I capacity of 5.33 MMT gives approximately 9.5 days of cover. 90 days is the IEA benchmark, and 22 days would be the cover after Phase II completion.

4. Under Phase II, which new location has been selected for a 4.0 MMT underground SPR?
a. Bhatinda, Punjab
b. Chandikhol, Odisha
c. Kochi, Kerala
d. Chennai, Tamil Nadu

Ans: B
Chandikhol, Odisha is the brand-new Phase II site with a planned capacity of 4.0 MMT — the largest single site in the expanded SPR network.

5. India’s Strategic Petroleum Reserves are stored in:
a. Overground metal tanks at ports
b. Underground rock caverns
c. Floating storage units at sea
d. Pressurised cylinders at refineries

Ans: B
India’s SPRs are stored in underground rock caverns along the country’s coastlines — providing protection against natural disasters, sabotage, and fire hazards compared to overground tanks.

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Made in India C-295 Aircraft: Maiden Test Flight

Why in News

The first Made in India C-295 military transport aircraft successfully completed its maiden test flight on June 10, 2026, from the Final Assembly Line (FAL) in Vadodara, Gujarat. The aircraft was assembled by Tata Advanced Systems Limited (TASL) in partnership with Airbus Defence and Space. This is a landmark achievement for India’s private defence manufacturing sector under Atmanirbhar Bharat.

Made in India C-295: Key Facts for Prelims

IAF Procurement Details

The Indian Air Force (IAF) is procuring 56 C-295 transport aircraft at a total cost of approximately ₹21,935 crore.
16 aircraft to be delivered directly from Airbus, Spain in flyaway condition.
40 aircraft to be assembled in India by TASL + Airbus at Vadodara.

Manufacturers

Airbus Defence and Space (Spain) — Original equipment manufacturer.
Tata Advanced Systems Limited — TASL (India) — Assembly partner under Make in India.

Assembly Location

Vadodara, Gujarat — India’s first private-sector military aircraft manufacturing facility.

Aircraft Replacing

The C-295 replaces the aging Avro-748 (HS-748) fleet of the Indian Air Force.

Aircraft Capabilities

STOL (Short Take-Off and Landing) capable — can operate on unpaved/dirt runways.
All-weather operational capability.
Multi-role missions: Troop transport, medical evacuation, para-dropping, maritime patrol, air-to-air refuelling.

Strategic Significance

First military aircraft to be manufactured in India by the private sector.
Strengthens Make in India and Atmanirbhar Bharat in defence.
Reduces India’s dependence on imported military hardware.

Connected Concepts for Prelims

Concept	Details
Make in India	Launched 2014 to promote manufacturing in India
Atmanirbhar Bharat	2020 self-reliance mission; defence is a key pillar
DAP 2020	Defence Acquisition Policy — promotes indigenous procurement
iDEX	Innovations for Defence Excellence — startup ecosystem
HAL	Public sector aerospace; manufactures Tejas, ALH
TASL	Tata Advanced Systems Limited — private sector aerospace
FDI in Defence	100% FDI permitted in defence manufacturing via automatic route

Quick Revision Table

Fact	Detail
Total aircraft ordered	56 C-295
Total cost	₹21,935 crore
Assembled in India	40 aircraft (by TASL + Airbus)
Flyaway from Spain	16 aircraft (from Airbus directly)
Assembly location	Vadodara, Gujarat
Replaces	Avro-748 (HS-748) IAF fleet
Manufacturer	Airbus (Spain) + TASL (India)
Key capability	STOL, all-weather, multi-role
Significance	First private-sector military aircraft made in India

Trap / Confusing Points

Common Confusion	Correct Fact
All 56 C-295 are made in India	❌ Only 40 assembled in India; 16 flyaway from Spain
HAL is manufacturing C-295	❌ It is TASL (private sector), not HAL (public sector)
C-295 replaces MiG-21 fighters	❌ Replaces Avro-748 (HS-748) transport aircraft — not a fighter
C-295 is a fighter jet	❌ It is a medium tactical military transport aircraft
Assembly facility is in Bengaluru	❌ Final Assembly Line is in Vadodara, Gujarat
Airbus is an Indian company	❌ Airbus is a European company; TASL is the Indian partner

Practice MCQs

1. The first Made in India C-295 aircraft is manufactured by which combination?
a. HAL and Dassault Aviation
b. DRDO and Boeing
c. Tata Advanced Systems Limited and Airbus
d. BEL and Safran

Ans: C
The C-295 is jointly manufactured by Tata Advanced Systems Limited (TASL) and Airbus Defence and Space — the first private-sector military aircraft manufacturing partnership in India.

2. The Made in India C-295 aircraft replaces which aircraft in the Indian Air Force?
a. AN-32
b. MiG-21
c. IL-76
d. Avro-748 (HS-748)

Ans: D
The C-295 was procured to replace the aging Avro-748 (HS-748) transport fleet. Do not confuse it with MiG-21 which is a fighter aircraft.

3. The Final Assembly Line (FAL) for the C-295 aircraft in India is located at:
a. Bengaluru, Karnataka
b. Hyderabad, Telangana
c. Vadodara, Gujarat
d. Pune, Maharashtra

Ans: C
The assembly facility is in Vadodara, Gujarat — India’s first private-sector facility for manufacturing military aircraft.

4. Out of 56 C-295 aircraft ordered by India, how many will be assembled domestically?
a. 16
b. 56
c. 40
d. 30

Ans: C
40 aircraft are to be assembled in India by TASL + Airbus; the remaining 16 will be delivered in flyaway condition directly from Airbus, Spain.

5. The C-295 programme is significant for India primarily because it:
a. Is the first jet fighter made by a private company in India
b. Is the first military aircraft manufactured in India by the private sector
c. Is the first aircraft manufactured by HAL under Make in India
d. Is the first combat drone operational in the Indian Air Force

Ans: B
The C-295 programme marks the first instance of a military aircraft being manufactured in India by the private sector — specifically by Tata Advanced Systems Limited.

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North Eastern Council (NEC): 73rd Plenary Session

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, Polity Current Affairs / PSC Chronicles Team

Why in News

The North Eastern Council (NEC) held its 73rd Plenary Session in Shillong, Meghalaya, chaired by Union Home Minister Amit Shah. The session brought together Governors, Chief Ministers, and senior officials from all eight North Eastern states. It deliberated on the North East Vision Plan 2047 — a long-term roadmap to transform the North Eastern Region into a hub of economic growth, connectivity, and cultural prosperity.

About the North Eastern Council (NEC) — Key Facts for Prelims

What is NEC?

The North Eastern Council is the apex statutory regional planning body for the socio-economic and balanced development of India’s eight North Eastern states.

Eight Member States

Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, and Tripura.

Establishment

Constituted in 1971 under The North Eastern Council Act, 1971 — an Act of Parliament.
Sikkim was added in 2002 through an amendment to the NEC Act.

Composition

Governors and Chief Ministers of all eight member states.
Three members nominated by the President of India.

Key Positions

Chairperson: Union Home Minister (ex-officio)
Vice-Chairperson: Minister of DoNER (Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region)

Nature of Body

Statutory body — created by an Act of Parliament.
NOT a constitutional body.

Secretariat

Located in Shillong, Meghalaya.

Key Functions

Regional planning and inter-state coordination for North Eastern states.
Reviews and recommends projects in transport, education, power, and flood control.
Promotes cooperative federalism across the eight states.

Interconnected Concept: NEC vs. Zonal Councils

Parameter	North Eastern Council	Zonal Councils
Created by	NEC Act, 1971 (Parliament)	States Reorganisation Act, 1956
Nature	Statutory body	Statutory body
Coverage	8 North Eastern States only	Rest of India (5 zones)
Chairperson	Union Home Minister	Union Home Minister
Focus	Planning & development	Advisory — inter-state cooperation
Secretariat	Shillong, Meghalaya	Ministry of Home Affairs, Delhi

⚠️ Key Fact: Both NEC and Zonal Councils are statutory, NOT constitutional bodies.

Quick Revision Table

Fact	Detail
NEC established	1971, by NEC Act of Parliament
Sikkim added	2002 amendment
Chairperson	Union Home Minister
Vice-Chairperson	Minister of DoNER
Member states	8 (includes Sikkim)
Secretariat	Shillong, Meghalaya
Body type	Statutory (NOT constitutional)
73rd Session theme	North East Vision Plan 2047

Trap / Confusing Points

Common Confusion	Correct Fact
NEC is a constitutional body	❌ It is a statutory body under NEC Act, 1971
NEC has 7 member states	❌ It has 8 states (Sikkim added in 2002)
Home Minister is Vice-Chairman	❌ Home Minister is Chairman; DoNER Minister is Vice-Chairman
NEC covers all of India	❌ Covers only the 8 North Eastern states
NEC established in 2002	❌ Established in 1971; 2002 only added Sikkim
NEC and Zonal Councils are same	❌ Different scope and purpose — NEC is for planning; Zonal Councils are advisory

Practice MCQs

1. The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established under which of the following?
a. 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act
b. NEC Act, 1971
c. States Reorganisation Act, 1956
d. North Eastern Areas Reorganisation Act, 1971

Ans: B
The NEC is a statutory body created by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971 — an Act of Parliament. It is not a constitutional body.

2. Which state was added to the North Eastern Council through an amendment in 2002?
a. Tripura
b. Arunachal Pradesh
c. Sikkim
d. Manipur

Ans: C
Sikkim was included in NEC through the NEC (Amendment) Act, 2002. Before that, NEC had only 7 states.

3. Who serves as the Vice-Chairperson of the North Eastern Council?
a. Chief Minister of Assam
b. Union Home Minister
c. Minister of DoNER
d. Governor of Meghalaya

Ans: C
The Minister of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER) is the Vice-Chairman. The Union Home Minister is the Chairman — a common trap question.

4. Which of the following statements about NEC is CORRECT?
a. It is a constitutional body under Article 263
b. Its secretariat is in Guwahati
c. It was created by the States Reorganisation Act, 1956
d. It is a statutory apex body for planning in 8 North Eastern states

Ans: D
NEC is a statutory apex body for planning. Its secretariat is in Shillong (not Guwahati). Article 263 deals with the Inter-State Council — a different body.

5. The 73rd Plenary Session of the NEC deliberated on which document/plan?
a. Act East Policy 2047
b. NER Industrial Vision 2030
c. North East Vision Plan 2047
d. DONER Development Plan 2035

Ans: C
The 73rd session focused on the North East Vision Plan 2047 — a long-term roadmap for transforming the North Eastern Region by 2047.

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NITI Aayog 11th Governing Council Meeting: Key Facts for UPSC Prelims 2025

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, National Current Affairs, Polity Current Affairs / PSC Chronicles Team

Prime Minister Narendra Modi chaired the 11th Governing Council Meeting of NITI Aayog at the Rashtrapati Bhavan Cultural Centre, New Delhi. The meeting focused on entrepreneurship, skill enhancement, and creating sustainable employment opportunities across the country — key pillars of India’s economic transformation agenda.

Why in News?

PM Modi chaired the 11th NITI Aayog Governing Council Meeting, bringing together Chief Ministers of all states and UTs in a platform of cooperative federalism. The agenda centred on promoting entrepreneurship, skilling, and sustainable employment — critical areas for India’s demographic dividend.

Key Facts for Prelims: NITI Aayog

Full form: National Institution for Transforming India
Nature: Neither constitutional nor statutory — created by an executive (Union Cabinet) resolution
Established: January 1, 2015
Replaced: The Planning Commission (which had functioned for 65 years since 1950)
Key Shift: From Planning Commission’s rigid top-down approach → NITI Aayog’s bottom-up cooperative model giving states a direct voice
Promotes: Cooperative federalism, competitive federalism among states

Composition of NITI Aayog Governing Council

Chairperson: Prime Minister of India
Vice-Chairperson: Dr. Suman Bery
CEO: B.V.R. Subrahmanyam
Full-time Members: Prof. Ramesh Chand, Dr. V.K. Paul, Shri V.K. Saraswat, Dr. Arvind Virmani
Special Invitees: Cabinet Ministers nominated by PM
Governing Council includes: Chief Ministers of all 28 states, Chief Ministers of UTs with legislatures (Delhi, Puducherry, J&K), and Lieutenant Governors of UTs without legislatures

Static/Exam Links: NITI Aayog vs Planning Commission

Aspect	Planning Commission	NITI Aayog
Established	1950 (executive resolution)	2015 (executive resolution)
Approach	Top-down, centralised	Bottom-up, cooperative
Nature	Non-constitutional, non-statutory	Non-constitutional, non-statutory
Fund Allocation	Had power to allocate funds to states	No fund allocation power
State Role	States were consulted minimally	States are equal partners (Governing Council)
Focus	Five-Year Plans	15-year vision, 7-year strategy, 3-year action plan

Key NITI Aayog Initiatives (Exam-relevant)

Atal Innovation Mission (AIM): Promotes innovation and entrepreneurship ecosystem
Aspirational Districts Programme: Transforms under-developed districts across India
SATH (Sustainable Action for Transforming Human Capital): Education and health sector reform with states
SDG India Index: Tracks India’s progress on Sustainable Development Goals

Quick Revision Table

Parameter	Detail
Meeting	11th Governing Council Meeting
Chaired by	PM Narendra Modi
Focus Areas	Entrepreneurship, skilling, employment
NITI Aayog Established	January 1, 2015
Nature	Non-constitutional, non-statutory
Replaced	Planning Commission (est. 1950)
Chairperson	Prime Minister of India
Vice-Chairperson	Dr. Suman Bery
CEO	B.V.R. Subrahmanyam
Governing Council	CMs of all states + UTs with legislature + LGs of UTs without legislature

Trap / Confusing Points

❌ Common Trap	✅ Correct Fact
NITI Aayog is a statutory body	NITI Aayog is neither constitutional nor statutory — created by executive (Cabinet) resolution
Planning Commission was a statutory body	Planning Commission was also non-statutory — both created by executive orders
NITI Aayog allocates funds to states like Planning Commission	NITI Aayog has no fund allocation power; funds go via Finance Commission and Union Budget
NITI Aayog was established by Parliament	Established by Union Cabinet resolution, not by Parliament
All LGs attend the Governing Council	Only LGs of UTs without legislature attend; UTs with legislature send their CMs

5 Practice MCQs

1. NITI Aayog was established on which date?
a. August 15, 2014
b. January 1, 2015
c. March 31, 2015
d. November 26, 2014
Ans: B
NITI Aayog was established on January 1, 2015 via a Union Cabinet resolution, replacing the Planning Commission which had existed since 1950.

2. What is the nature of NITI Aayog?
a. Constitutional body
b. Statutory body under an Act of Parliament
c. Non-constitutional, non-statutory executive body
d. Quasi-judicial body
Ans: C
NITI Aayog is created by an executive (Cabinet) resolution, making it neither constitutional nor statutory — same as the Planning Commission it replaced.

3. Who is the ex-officio Chairperson of NITI Aayog?
a. President of India
b. Vice-President of India
c. Prime Minister of India
d. Finance Minister of India
Ans: C
The Prime Minister of India serves as the ex-officio Chairperson of NITI Aayog, reflecting its role as the apex policy-making body for national development.

4. Which key power does NITI Aayog NOT have compared to the Planning Commission?
a. Conducting research on economic policy
b. Providing policy recommendations to states
c. Allocating funds directly to states
d. Monitoring implementation of government schemes
Ans: C
Unlike the Planning Commission, NITI Aayog has no power to allocate funds to states. This was a deliberate design choice to make it an advisory-collaborative body rather than a controlling one.

5. The Governing Council of NITI Aayog includes which of the following?
a. Chief Ministers of states only
b. Chief Ministers of states + LGs of all UTs
c. Chief Ministers of all states + CMs of UTs with legislatures + LGs of UTs without legislatures
d. Only Union Cabinet Ministers
Ans: C
The Governing Council includes CMs of all 28 states, CMs of UTs with legislatures (Delhi, Puducherry, J&K), and Lt. Governors of UTs without legislatures — making it a true federal platform.

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Gummadi Gopalakrishna: Kendra Sangeet Natak Akademi Award 2025 | UPSC

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, Andhra Pradesh Current Affairs, History and Culture Current Affairs / PSC Chronicles Team

Gummadi Gopalakrishna has been officially selected for the prestigious Kendra Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in the Acting (Theatre) category — India’s highest national recognition in the performing arts, announced by the National Academy of Music, Dance, and Drama.

Why in News?

The Sangeet Natak Akademi has selected veteran theatre artist Gummadi Gopalakrishna for the Kendra Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in recognition of his outstanding, lifelong contributions to Indian theatre — particularly to Telugu Padya Natakam (musical verse drama).

Who is Gummadi Gopalakrishna?

Celebrated master exponent of Telugu Padya Natakam — a classical form of musical verse drama in Telugu theatre tradition
Acclaimed for his portrayals of mythological and historical characters: Sri Krishna, Sri Rama, Harishchandra, and the legendary poet Srinatha
Currently serves as Chairman of the Andhra Pradesh Nataka Academy
Actively works to revive traditional theatre using digital advancements

Key Facts for Prelims: Sangeet Natak Akademi

Full name: Sangeet Natak Akademi — National Academy of Music, Dance, and Drama
Established: 1952 — India’s first national academy of arts, set up by the Government of India
Headquarters: New Delhi
Under: Ministry of Culture, Government of India
Status: Autonomous body (registered as a society)
Purpose: Promote and preserve the performing arts of India — music, dance, drama, and folk/traditional arts

Awards Given by Sangeet Natak Akademi

Sangeet Natak Akademi Award (Akademi Puraskar): Highest national recognition in performing arts; given in music, dance, theatre, folk/tribal arts, puppetry
Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellowship (Akademi Ratna): The highest honour — limited to a maximum of 30 living fellows at any time; for lifelong outstanding contribution
Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar: For young artists below 40 years of age; encourages emerging talent

Static/Exam Links

Three National Akademis under Ministry of Culture:

Sangeet Natak Akademi (1952): Performing arts — Music, Dance, Drama
Sahitya Akademi (1954): Literature — recognises works in 24 languages
Lalit Kala Akademi (1954): Visual arts — Painting, Sculpture, Graphics

Telugu Padya Natakam: A classical form of Telugu theatre using musical verse (padya) to narrate mythological and historical stories. It is part of the rich Andhra theatre tradition and is considered endangered — revival efforts by artists like Gummadi Gopalakrishna are significant from a cultural heritage perspective.

Quick Revision Table

Parameter	Detail
Award	Kendra Sangeet Natak Akademi Award
Category	Acting (Theatre)
Awardee	Gummadi Gopalakrishna
Art Form	Telugu Padya Natakam
Current Role	Chairman, AP Nataka Academy
Akademi Established	1952
Akademi Under	Ministry of Culture
Highest Akademi Honour	Akademi Fellowship (Akademi Ratna)
Youth Award	Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar

Trap / Confusing Points

❌ Common Trap	✅ Correct Fact
Sangeet Natak Akademi Award is the highest Akademi honour	The Akademi Fellowship (Akademi Ratna) is the highest; the award is below it
Sangeet Natak Akademi was established in 1954	It was established in 1952 — the first national academy (Sahitya & Lalit Kala came in 1954)
Sangeet Natak Akademi is under Ministry of Education	It is under Ministry of Culture
Telugu Padya Natakam is a dance form	It is a musical verse drama — a theatre tradition, not a dance form
Ustad Bismillah Khan Puraskar is for senior artists	It is specifically for young artists below 40 years of age

5 Practice MCQs

1. Gummadi Gopalakrishna was selected for Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in which category?
a. Music (Vocal)
b. Classical Dance
c. Acting (Theatre)
d. Folk/Tribal Arts
Ans: C
He was recognised in the Acting (Theatre) category for his lifelong contributions to Telugu Padya Natakam.

2. In which year was the Sangeet Natak Akademi established?
a. 1947
b. 1950
c. 1952
d. 1954
Ans: C
Sangeet Natak Akademi was established in 1952 — India’s first national academy of arts, preceding Sahitya Akademi and Lalit Kala Akademi (both 1954).

3. What is the highest honour given by Sangeet Natak Akademi?
a. Sangeet Natak Akademi Award
b. Akademi Fellowship (Akademi Ratna)
c. Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar
d. Padma Bhushan
Ans: B
The Akademi Fellowship (Akademi Ratna) is the highest honour, limited to 30 living fellows at any time. The Akademi Puraskar is given more widely for outstanding contribution.

4. Sangeet Natak Akademi functions under which ministry?
a. Ministry of Education
b. Ministry of Tourism
c. Ministry of Culture
d. Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
Ans: C
Sangeet Natak Akademi is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.

5. Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar is awarded to:
a. Artists above 60 years for lifetime achievement
b. Young artists below 40 years
c. Classical musicians only
d. International artists performing Indian music
Ans: B
The Yuva Puraskar is given to encourage emerging talent — specifically to young performing artists below 40 years of age.

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Rah-Veer Scheme: Good Samaritan Protection & ₹25,000 Reward | UPSC 2025

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, National Current Affairs / PSC Chronicles Team

The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) has strengthened Good Samaritan protections through the Rah-Veer scheme, offering legal immunity and ₹25,000 cash reward to citizens who help road accident victims during the critical Golden Hour.

Why in News?

MoRTH has reinforced the Rah-Veer (Good Samaritan) scheme to encourage bystanders to assist road accident victims without fear of legal harassment. This scheme addresses a major deterrent — the fear of police questioning and court proceedings — that prevents people from helping accident victims.

Key Facts for Prelims: Rah-Veer Scheme

Launched by: Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH)
Purpose: Protect and reward Good Samaritans (Rah-Veers) who help road accident victims
Legal Protection: Rah-Veers are free from civil and criminal liability; cannot be unnecessarily detained
Right to Anonymity: Rescuers cannot be compelled to reveal personal details or testify as witnesses
Cash Reward: ₹25,000 + Certificate of Appreciation for assisting within the Golden Hour
National Award: Up to ₹1,00,000 for the best 10 Rah-Veers annually
Legal Basis: Section 134A, Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019

What is the Golden Hour?

The Golden Hour refers to the first 60 minutes after a traumatic injury. Prompt medical care during this period significantly increases survival chances. Most road accident deaths in India occur due to delays in reaching hospitals — the Rah-Veer scheme directly addresses this gap.

Static/Exam Links: Legal Background

Supreme Court 2016 Guidelines: Directed protection of Good Samaritans from police harassment
Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019 – Section 134A: Legally recognises and grants immunity to Good Samaritans
Central Motor Vehicles (Good Samaritan) Rules, 2020: Notified under MV Act 2019 to operationalise the protections

Quick Revision Table

Parameter	Detail
Scheme	Rah-Veer (Good Samaritan Scheme)
Ministry	MoRTH
Cash Reward	₹25,000 per helper
National Award	Up to ₹1,00,000 (top 10 annually)
Key Protection	Civil + Criminal immunity
Anonymity	Cannot be forced to testify
Golden Hour	First 60 minutes after trauma
Legal Basis	MV Act 2019, Section 134A

Trap / Confusing Points

❌ Common Trap	✅ Correct Fact
Rah-Veer is under MoHFW (Health Ministry)	It is under Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH)
Reward is ₹1,00,000 per person	₹1,00,000 is only for top 10 nationally; standard reward is ₹25,000
Good Samaritans must testify in court	Rah-Veers have Right to Anonymity; cannot be forced to testify
Golden Hour = 30 minutes	Golden Hour = first 60 minutes after trauma
MV Act 1988 covers Good Samaritan	Good Samaritan provisions added via MV Amendment Act 2019 (Section 134A)

5 Practice MCQs

1. Rah-Veer scheme is implemented by which ministry?
a. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
b. Ministry of Home Affairs
c. Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
d. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
Ans: C
The Rah-Veer scheme is an initiative of MoRTH to encourage Good Samaritans to help road accident victims.

2. What is the standard cash reward for a Rah-Veer who helps within the Golden Hour?
a. ₹10,000
b. ₹25,000
c. ₹50,000
d. ₹1,00,000
Ans: B
₹25,000 and a Certificate of Appreciation are given to Good Samaritans who successfully assist a victim during the Golden Hour.

3. The “Golden Hour” in road accident context refers to:
a. Best time to drive on highways
b. First 60 minutes after a traumatic injury
c. 24-hour window for filing FIR
d. Average ambulance response time in metro cities
Ans: B
The Golden Hour is the first 60 minutes after trauma, during which timely medical care significantly improves survival chances.

4. Which section of the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019 protects Good Samaritans?
a. Section 129
b. Section 134A
c. Section 185
d. Section 138
Ans: B
Section 134A of MV Amendment Act 2019 legally protects Good Samaritans from civil and criminal liability when helping accident victims.

5. Under Rah-Veer scheme, maximum national-level award available annually is:
a. ₹25,000 for all
b. ₹50,000 for top 5
c. ₹1,00,000 for top 10
d. ₹2,00,000 for the single best Rah-Veer
Ans: C
A national-level award of up to ₹1,00,000 is given to the best 10 Rah-Veers annually, recognising outstanding service.

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GI Tag Tezpur Litchi: APEDA Exports to Dubai | UPSC Current Affairs 2025

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, National Current Affairs / PSC Chronicles Team

APEDA (Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority) has facilitated the first export of GI-tagged Tezpur Litchi from Assam to Dubai, marking a major milestone for agricultural exports from India’s North-Eastern Region.

Why in News?

APEDA facilitated India’s first export of GI-tagged Tezpur Litchi from Assam to Dubai, boosting NE India’s export profile and showcasing the value of Geographical Indication (GI) tags for agricultural products.

Key Facts for Prelims: GI Tag

GI tag is an Intellectual Property Right (IPR) identifying products with a specific geographical origin
Governed by: Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999
Nodal Ministry: DPIIT (Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade) under Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Issuing Authority: GI Registry, headquartered in Chennai
Validity: 10 years, renewable indefinitely for successive 10-year periods
International Framework: WTO’s TRIPS Agreement, Articles 22–24
GI tag is a community right, not an individual ownership right

Key Facts for Prelims: APEDA

Statutory body under Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Established: 1985 under the APEDA Act
Promotes and develops exports of “scheduled products” — fruits, vegetables, meat, dairy, cereals, organic foods
Plays a key role in facilitating exports from North-Eastern India

Static/Exam Links

TRIPS Agreement (WTO): Articles 22–24 protect Geographical Indications internationally. India has been at the forefront of pushing for stronger GI protections, especially for products like Basmati rice and Darjeeling tea.

Notable NE India GI Tags (Exam-relevant): Assam Muga Silk, Assam Orthodox Tea, Joha Rice (Assam), Chakhao/Manipuri Black Rice, Naga Mircha (King Chilli – Nagaland), Khasi Mandarin (Meghalaya)

Quick Revision Table

Parameter	Detail
Act	GI Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999
Nodal Ministry	DPIIT, Ministry of Commerce
Issuing Authority	GI Registry, Chennai
Validity	10 years (renewable)
International Framework	WTO TRIPS (Articles 22–24)
APEDA Established	1985
APEDA Under	Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Tezpur Litchi GI Tag	Assam

Trap / Confusing Points

❌ Common Trap	✅ Correct Fact
GI Registry is in Mumbai	GI Registry is headquartered in Chennai
GI tag is valid for 5 years	Validity is 10 years, renewable
APEDA is under Ministry of Agriculture	APEDA is under Ministry of Commerce and Industry
GI tag = personal/individual ownership	GI tag is a community right; any producer from that region can use it
GI governed by Patent Act	GI has its own Act – GI Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999

5 Practice MCQs

1. Under which ministry does APEDA function?
a. Ministry of Agriculture
b. Ministry of Food Processing
c. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
d. Ministry of External Affairs
Ans: C
APEDA is a statutory body under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, established in 1985 under the APEDA Act.

2. The Geographical Indications Registry of India is located in:
a. Mumbai
b. New Delhi
c. Chennai
d. Kolkata
Ans: C
The GI Registry is headquartered in Chennai and is the sole authority for granting GI tags in India.

3. GI tags in India are governed by which act?
a. Patents Act, 1970
b. Trade Marks Act, 1999
c. GI Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999
d. APEDA Act, 1985
Ans: C
India enacted the GI Goods Act in 1999 in compliance with WTO’s TRIPS Agreement obligations.

4. At the international level, GIs are protected under which WTO agreement?
a. GATS
b. Agreement on Agriculture
c. TRIPS
d. TBT Agreement
Ans: C
TRIPS Articles 22–24 provide the international legal framework for protection of Geographical Indications.

5. What is the validity period of a GI tag in India?
a. 5 years, non-renewable
b. 10 years, non-renewable
c. 10 years, renewable
d. Lifetime validity
Ans: C
A GI tag in India is valid for 10 years from the date of grant and can be renewed indefinitely for successive 10-year periods.

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IN-SPACe Opens LVM3 to Private Sector

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, Science and Technology Current Affairs / PSC Chronicles Team

The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) has officially invited Expressions of Interest (EoI) from the private sector for Technology Transfer (ToT) and end-to-end commercialization of ISRO’s LVM3 (Launch Vehicle Mark-III) — India’s most powerful indigenous rocket.

Why in News?

IN-SPACe has opened the LVM3 rocket to India’s private space sector by inviting EoIs for Technology Transfer and full commercialization. This marks a major step in India’s space privatisation journey under the Indian Space Policy 2023.

Key Facts for Prelims: About IN-SPACe

Established in 2020 by a government order (not a parliamentary act)
An autonomous body under the Department of Space (DoS)
Functions as a single-window agency to facilitate, promote, and regulate space activities by Non-Governmental Entities (NGEs)
Distinct from ISRO — IN-SPACe regulates and promotes; ISRO does R&D

Key Facts for Prelims: About LVM3

Previously known as GSLV Mk-III
India’s heaviest and most powerful indigenous launch vehicle
Type: 3-Stage Launch Vehicle

Stage	Component	Type
Stage 1	S200 (twin strap-on)	Solid Boosters
Stage 2	L110	Core Liquid Stage
Stage 3	C25	Cryogenic Upper Stage

GTO Payload: 4,000 kg (4 tonnes)
LEO Payload: 8,000 kg (8 tonnes)
Key Missions: Chandrayaan-3 (2023), OneWeb/Eutelsat commercial satellite launches

Static/Exam Links: Indian Space Policy 2023

Clearly delineates roles: ISRO (R&D + national security), IN-SPACe (regulator + promoter for private sector), NSIL (commercial arm for ISRO technologies), DoS (policy oversight)
NSIL ≠ IN-SPACe: NSIL commercialises ISRO tech; IN-SPACe promotes and regulates private entities

Quick Revision Table

Parameter	Detail
Body	IN-SPACe
Under	Department of Space (DoS)
LVM3 Former Name	GSLV Mk-III
Stage 1	Solid Boosters (S200)
Stage 2	Core Liquid Stage (L110)
Stage 3	Cryogenic Upper Stage (C25)
GTO Payload	4,000 kg
LEO Payload	8,000 kg

Trap / Confusing Points

❌ Common Trap	✅ Correct Fact
IN-SPACe is a part of ISRO	IN-SPACe is an autonomous body under DoS, separate from ISRO
LVM3 uses only liquid stages	Stage 1 uses solid boosters (S200); liquid is only Stage 2
LVM3 = GSLV Mk-II	LVM3 was formerly GSLV Mk-III, not Mk-II
NSIL promotes private sector	NSIL commercialises ISRO tech; IN-SPACe promotes/regulates private entities

5 Practice MCQs

1. Which body invited EoIs for commercialisation of LVM3?
a. ISRO
b. NSIL
c. IN-SPACe
d. DoS directly
Ans: C
IN-SPACe is the authorised single-window agency to promote private participation in India’s space sector, including ToT for LVM3.

2. LVM3 was formerly known as:
a. GSLV Mk-I
b. PSLV-XL
c. GSLV Mk-II
d. GSLV Mk-III
Ans: D
LVM3 (Launch Vehicle Mark-III) was renamed from GSLV Mk-III to emphasise its distinct vehicle class.

3. Which stage of LVM3 uses cryogenic technology?
a. Stage 1 (S200)
b. Stage 2 (L110)
c. Stage 3 (C25)
d. All three stages
Ans: C
C25 is the cryogenic upper stage using liquid hydrogen and liquid oxygen. India developed this indigenously after technology denial.

4. What is LVM3’s payload capacity to LEO?
a. 4 tonnes
b. 6 tonnes
c. 8 tonnes
d. 10 tonnes
Ans: C
LVM3 can carry up to 8,000 kg (8 tonnes) to Low Earth Orbit and 4,000 kg to GTO.

5. IN-SPACe was established under which provision?
a. Space Activities Bill 2017
b. Indian Space Policy 2023
c. ISRO Act 1969
d. Government executive order in 2020
Ans: D
IN-SPACe was set up in 2020 by a government order, not a parliamentary act. The Indian Space Policy 2023 further defined its role.

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Telangana Tourism Master Plan: 8 Key Zones & 27 STAs | UPSC Notes

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, Telangana Current Affairs / PSC Chronicles Team

Telangana Tourism Master Plan: 8 Key Zones Announced

Telangana Tourism Minister directed officials to prepare comprehensive master plans for eight key Telangana tourism regions as part of Phase 1 of the state’s broader plan to develop 27 Special Tourism Areas (STAs). This Telangana tourism initiative aims to transform the state into a global tourist destination through heritage, eco-tourism, adventure, and spiritual circuits.

Key Facts for Prelims

Total Special Tourism Areas (STAs) identified: 27
Phase 1 areas: 8 regions (master plans being prepared first)
Ramappa Temple (Warangal): UNESCO World Heritage Site — inscribed in 2021
Pochampally: Famous for Pochampally Ikat sarees — GI-tagged traditional weaving
Nagarjunasagar: One of the world’s largest masonry dams on the Krishna River
Yadadri: Dedicated to Lord Lakshmi Narasimha Swamy — major spiritual tourism site
Bhadrachalam: Located on the Godavari River; famous for Sita Ramachandra Swamy Temple
Adilabad: Tribal belt — part of tiger reserve landscape in northern Telangana

Phase 1 Telangana Tourism Zones — Complete List

#	Zone	Tourism Focus
1	Vikarabad	Eco-tourism and adventure activities
2	Somasila-Alampur	River cruises, water sports & eco-tourism along the Krishna River
3	Warangal-Ramappa	UNESCO World Heritage Site (Ramappa Temple), temples, waterfalls
4	Nagarjunasagar	Spiritual and nature-based tourism
5	Yadadri-Pochampally	Spiritual tourism + traditional handloom (Ikat) promotion
6	Adilabad Tribal Cluster	Immersive tribal culture, tiger landscapes, waterfalls
7	Bhadrachalam	River and religious tourism (Godavari)
8	Kaleshwaram	Eco-tourism and spiritual circuits

Static Linkage — Heritage & GI Tags for Prelims

Ramappa Temple (Rudreswara Temple): Built by Kakatiya dynasty; UNESCO WHS (2021). Located in Mulugu district, Telangana.
Pochampally Ikat: Distinctive resist-dyeing technique before weaving; holds GI tag. Also called “Bhoodan Pochampally” or “Silk City of India.”
Nagarjunasagar Dam: Constructed on Krishna River (1955–1967); used for irrigation and hydro power. Shared between Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.
Kaleshwaram: Apart from the famous lift irrigation project, it hosts a prominent Shiva-Parvati temple at the confluence of Pranahita and Godavari rivers.

Quick Revision Table

Zone	Key Highlight
Vikarabad	Eco-tourism, adventure
Somasila-Alampur	Water sports, river cruises (Krishna River)
Warangal-Ramappa	UNESCO WHS (Ramappa/Rudreswara Temple, 2021)
Nagarjunasagar	World’s largest masonry dam; Krishna River
Yadadri-Pochampally	Spiritual (Lakshmi Narasimha) + Pochampally Ikat (GI tagged)
Adilabad Tribal Cluster	Tribal culture, tiger reserves, waterfalls
Bhadrachalam	Religious tourism; Sita Ramachandra Temple on Godavari
Kaleshwaram	Eco-tourism + Shiva-Parvati temple (Godavari confluence)
Total STAs in Telangana	27 (8 in Phase 1)

Trap / Confusing Points

Common Misconception	Correct Fact
All 27 STAs are being developed simultaneously	Only 8 are taken up in Phase 1; total plan covers 27 STAs
Ramappa is a river or dam	Ramappa (Rudreswara Temple) is a UNESCO WHS in Mulugu district, Telangana
Nagarjunasagar is entirely in Telangana	The dam and reservoir are shared between Telangana and Andhra Pradesh
Pochampally is known only for silk	Pochampally Ikat weaving (GI tagged) applies to cotton and silk both
Kaleshwaram refers only to the irrigation project	Kaleshwaram also has a Shiva-Parvati temple at the Pranahita-Godavari confluence
Ramappa Temple inscribed as UNESCO WHS in 2019	Ramappa Temple was inscribed as UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2021

Practice MCQs

1. Ramappa Temple, part of the Telangana tourism master plan, was inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in which year?

a. 2019
b. 2020
c. 2021
d. 2022

Ans: C

Ramappa Temple (Rudreswara Temple) in Mulugu district, built during the Kakatiya dynasty, was inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2021.

2. The Somasila-Alampur Telangana tourism zone focuses on water sports along which river?

a. Godavari
b. Tungabhadra
c. Krishna
d. Bhima

Ans: C

Somasila-Alampur zone targets river cruises and water sports along the Krishna River.

3. Pochampally, under the Yadadri-Pochampally zone, is famous for which GI-tagged craft?

a. Dhokra metal craft
b. Kalamkari textile
c. Pochampally Ikat weaving
d. Bidri work

Ans: C

Pochampally is renowned for Pochampally Ikat — a distinctive resist-dyeing-before-weaving technique that carries a GI tag.

4. How many Special Tourism Areas has Telangana identified in total?

a. 8
b. 15
c. 21
d. 27

Ans: D

Telangana has identified 27 Special Tourism Areas (STAs) in total under its Tourism Policy 2025–2030. Eight zones are in Phase 1.

5. Which describes the Adilabad Tribal Cluster tourism zone?

a. River tourism and heritage temples
b. Tribal culture, tiger landscapes, and waterfalls
c. Handloom and spiritual tourism
d. Adventure water sports and river cruises

Ans: B

The Adilabad Tribal Cluster offers immersive tribal culture, tiger reserve landscapes, and scenic waterfalls in northern Telangana.

Telangana tourism development under the 27 STA framework is a key state affairs topic for TGPSC and UPSC aspirants. The Telangana tourism policy 2025–2030 focuses on heritage, eco-tourism, and tribal culture zones to position the state as a global destination.

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SIPRI Report 2026: India 5th Largest Military Spender | UPSC

Leave a Comment / Daily Current Affairs, Defence Current Affairs / PSC Chronicles Team

SIPRI Report 2026: India 5th Largest Military Spender

The SIPRI Report 2026 (Stockholm International Peace Research Institute Yearbook), released on June 8, 2026, has ranked India as the 5th largest military spender globally with an expenditure of USD 92.1 billion in 2025 — an 8.9% increase over the previous year. The SIPRI Report 2026 also reveals India holds approximately 190 nuclear warheads as of January 2026, surpassing Pakistan’s ~170.

Key Facts for Prelims

SIPRI = Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (HQ: Stockholm, Sweden)
India’s military spending (2025): USD 92.1 billion → Rank: 5th globally
India’s nuclear warheads (Jan 2026): ~190
Pakistan’s nuclear warheads (Jan 2026): ~170
India’s nuclear modernisation increasingly focuses on long-range missiles capable of reaching China
Total global nuclear weapons (Jan 2026): ~12,187
Of these, 9,745 are in military stockpiles (potentially operationally available)
9 nuclear-armed states: USA, Russia, UK, France, China, India, Pakistan, North Korea, Israel
Germany entered the Top 4 military spenders — a significant shift in European defence spending

Global Military Spending — Top 5 (2025)

Rank	Country	Expenditure (2025)	Note
1st	USA	USD 954 billion	33% of global total; 7.5% lower than 2024
2nd	China	USD 336 billion	—
3rd	Russia	USD 190 billion	—
4th	Germany	~USD 88+ billion	Newly entered top 5
5th	India	USD 92.1 billion	8.9% increase over 2024

India’s Nuclear Doctrine — Static Linkage

No First Use (NFU): India will not be the first to use nuclear weapons.
Credible Minimum Deterrence: Maintain only the minimum arsenal needed for deterrence.
Massive Retaliation: If attacked with nuclear weapons, India will respond with overwhelming force.
India is NOT a signatory to the NPT (Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty).
India’s nuclear triad: Land (Agni series) + Sea (INS Arihant — SSBN) + Air (aircraft-delivered).
India is a member of MTCR, Wassenaar Arrangement, Australia Group; NOT yet a full NSG member.

Quick Revision Table

Topic	Key Fact
India’s military spending rank	5th globally (USD 92.1 billion, 2025)
India’s nuclear warheads	~190 (January 2026)
Pakistan’s nuclear warheads	~170 (January 2026)
Largest military spender	USA (USD 954 billion — 33% of global total)
2nd largest military spender	China (USD 336 billion)
4th largest military spender	Germany (newly entered top 5)
Total global nuclear weapons	~12,187 (of which 9,745 in military stockpiles)
Number of nuclear-armed states	9 states
India’s nuclear doctrine	No First Use + Credible Minimum Deterrence
SIPRI headquarters	Stockholm, Sweden

Trap / Confusing Points

Common Misconception	Correct Fact
India is the 4th largest military spender	Germany is 4th; India is 5th as per SIPRI Report 2026
All 12,187 nuclear weapons are operational	Only 9,745 are in military stockpiles; not all deployed
India follows a First-Use nuclear policy	India follows “No First Use” (NFU) policy
SIPRI is a UN body	SIPRI is an independent institute, not affiliated with the UN
India is a member of the NSG	India’s NSG bid is ongoing since 2016; NOT yet a member
Iran is a nuclear-armed state per SIPRI	SIPRI lists 9 nuclear states; Iran is NOT among them

Practice MCQs

1. According to SIPRI Report 2026, which country was the largest military spender in 2025?

a. China
b. Russia
c. USA
d. India

Ans: C

The USA remained the largest military spender with USD 954 billion in 2025, accounting for 33% of total global military expenditure.

2. As per SIPRI Report 2026, India’s nuclear warhead count as of January 2026 was approximately:

a. 170
b. 180
c. 190
d. 200

Ans: C

India holds ~190 nuclear warheads as of January 2026, compared to Pakistan’s estimated 170.

3. Which of the following is NOT one of the nine nuclear-armed states identified by SIPRI?

a. North Korea
b. Israel
c. Iran
d. Pakistan

Ans: C

SIPRI identifies nine nuclear states: USA, Russia, UK, France, China, India, Pakistan, North Korea, and Israel. Iran is NOT in this list.

4. What does SIPRI stand for?

a. Stockholm Institute for Peace Research and Intelligence
b. Stockholm International Peace Research Institute
c. Strategic International Policy Research Initiative
d. Security and International Peace Research Institution

Ans: B

SIPRI = Stockholm International Peace Research Institute, headquartered in Stockholm, Sweden.

5. Which correctly describes India’s nuclear doctrine?

a. First Use + Massive Retaliation
b. No First Use + Credible Minimum Deterrence
c. Launch on Warning + Maximum Deterrence
d. Flexible Response + No First Use

Ans: B

India’s doctrine: “No First Use” (NFU) + “Credible Minimum Deterrence.” India will not initiate a nuclear strike but assures massive retaliation if attacked.

The SIPRI Report 2026 highlights the shifting global security landscape, with India’s rising defence expenditure reflecting its strategic priorities. For UPSC aspirants, the SIPRI Report 2026 is a recurring source of questions on military spending, nuclear arsenals, and international security.

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