January-2026 1st week Important Current affairs Practice
Important MCQs from January 1st week current affairs
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This section covers essential Indian Polity questions, focusing on the Constitution, the Preamble, Fundamental Rights, and the roles of the President and Parliament. It’s designed to help you master the key concepts and legal frameworks frequently tested in competitive exams
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The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is an international legally binding treaty aimed at conserving biological diversity and ensuring its sustainable use.

The CBD has three main objectives:
These are commonly called the “3 Pillars of CBD”
Adopted at COP15 of CBD. Key Targets (30×30 Target)
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for more practice question on Biodiversity
The IIP is divided into three major sectors:
Manufacturing dominates, so its performance heavily influences IIP.
IIP is calculated using the Laspeyres Index formula, which compares current production with base year production.
Within the IIP, there are eight “core” industries that represent approximately 40.27% of the total weight. They are considered high-frequency indicators of infrastructure and industrial performance
The Pardoning Power of the Governor refers to the authority granted under Article 161 of the Indian Constitution, which allows the Governor of a State to grant relief to individuals convicted of offences under State laws.
It is an important part of the executive powers of the Governor and acts as a safeguard against judicial errors and ensures justice with mercy.

Applies only to offences against laws under State jurisdiction.
| Feature | Governor | President |
|---|---|---|
| Constitutional Article | Article 161 | Article 72 |
| Jurisdiction | State laws | Union laws |
| Death Sentence | Cannot pardon | Can pardon |
| Court Martial | No power | Has power |
The pardoning power is not absolute. Courts can review it in cases of:
Pardoning Power of Governor (Article 161) – Explained for UPSC and State PSC exams Read More »

For Practice Constituent Assembly
Choose an option to see the answer and explanation.
The Citizenship Act 1955 was amended to provide citizenship to persons of Indian origin in which year — also when OCI was introduced?
C. 2005
ExplanationWhat does Article 10 of the Indian Constitution state about citizenship?
C. Rights of citizenship continue subject to any law made by Parliament
ExplanationArticle 6 of the Indian Constitution relates to citizenship of which category of persons?
B. Persons who migrated from Pakistan
ExplanationWhich of the following correctly states the relationship between Articles 5 to 11 of the Constitution and the Citizenship Act 1955?
B. Articles 5–11 are transitional; the Citizenship Act 1955 governs citizenship on a continuing basis
ExplanationUnder which article does the Indian Constitution address citizenship of persons of Indian origin residing outside India?
C. Article 8
ExplanationThe concept of ‘Jus Soli’ in citizenship law means:
B. Citizenship based on place of birth
ExplanationThe Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution on:
C. 26 November 1949
ExplanationIndia follows which type of citizenship system?
C. Single citizenship
ExplanationWhich of the following is the correct sequence of constitutional articles dealing with citizenship?
B. Articles 5 to 11
ExplanationDeprivation of citizenship under Section 10 of the Citizenship Act does NOT apply to persons who acquired citizenship by:
C. Birth
ExplanationCitizenship in India is listed under which Schedule and Entry of the Constitution?
C. Union List — Entry 17
ExplanationConsider the following statements about citizenship provisions in the Indian Constitution:
1. Articles 5 to 11 in Part II deal with citizenship.
2. Article 9 states that a person who voluntarily acquires foreign citizenship ceases to be an Indian citizen.
3. Article 11 empowers state legislatures to make laws relating to citizenship.
Which of the statements given above is/are CORRECT?
A. 1 and 2 only
ExplanationWhich Part of the Indian Constitution deals with Citizenship?
B. Part II
ExplanationThe ‘basic structure’ doctrine related to citizenship was most importantly articulated in which Supreme Court case?
B. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)
ExplanationWhich of the following is NOT included in the Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Article 19 to Indian citizens?
C. Right to vote in elections
ExplanationThe Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) was passed by the Indian Parliament in which year?
D. 2019
ExplanationUnder the Citizenship Act 1955, which of the following can lead to termination of Indian citizenship?
C. Voluntary acquisition of another country’s citizenship
ExplanationWhich case is associated with the Supreme Court striking down the Illegal Migrants (Determination by Tribunals) Act 1983?
B. Sarbananda Sonowal v. Union of India
ExplanationWhat is the significance of the Assam Accord of 1985 in the context of citizenship?
B. It set 24 March 1971 as the cut-off for identifying illegal migrants in Assam
ExplanationA person born in India on or after 26 January 1950 but before 1 July 1987 is a citizen of India by:
A. Birth (Jus soli — unconditional)
ExplanationThe concept of ‘Jus Sanguinis’ in citizenship law refers to:
B. Citizenship based on blood/parentage
ExplanationIn which Schedule of the Indian Constitution is citizenship listed as a Union subject?
C. Seventh Schedule — Union List Entry 17
ExplanationWhich among the following statements about the Foreigners Act 1946 is CORRECT?
C. The burden of proof lies on the accused to prove they are an Indian citizen
ExplanationWhich of the following correctly describes ‘citizenship by incorporation of territory’ under the Citizenship Act 1955?
B. Citizens of an incorporated territory become Indian citizens
ExplanationWhich Article of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to make laws on citizenship?
C. Article 11
ExplanationWhich Fundamental Right is available to citizens of India ONLY (not to all persons)?
C. Article 19 (Freedom of speech and expression)
ExplanationWhich provision prevents a person from being both an Indian citizen and a citizen of another country simultaneously (barring OCI)?
B. Article 9 and Section 9 of Citizenship Act 1955
ExplanationThe Citizenship Act was enacted by the Indian Parliament in which year?
C. 1955
ExplanationWhich of the following is a ground for DEPRIVATION of citizenship under Section 10 of the Citizenship Act 1955?
C. Obtaining citizenship by fraud or showing disloyalty to the Constitution
ExplanationWhich of the following persons can apply for registration as an Indian citizen under Section 5 of the Citizenship Act 1955?
B. A person married to an Indian citizen and resident in India for 7 years
ExplanationWhich Article of the Indian Constitution specifically abolishes untouchability and its practice is an offence?
C. Article 17
ExplanationWhat is the difference between an ‘NRI’ (Non-Resident Indian) and an ‘OCI’ (Overseas Citizen of India)?
B. NRI is a full citizen abroad; OCI is a foreign national with special privileges — not full citizenship
ExplanationWhich of the following persons CANNOT be granted Indian citizenship by naturalisation?
C. An illegal migrant from a neighbouring country
ExplanationWhich of the following bodies determines disputes related to citizenship in India?
B. Central Government / Foreigners Tribunals
ExplanationThe National Register of Citizens (NRC) was first prepared and updated in which state?
B. Assam
ExplanationIn India, citizenship is a subject in the _______ List, meaning only _______ can legislate on it.
C. Union List — only Parliament
ExplanationWhat is meant by ‘domicile’ in the context of Indian citizenship law?
C. Permanent legal residence with intent to remain
ExplanationThe Citizenship Amendment Act 2019 grants fast-track citizenship to persecuted minorities from which three countries?
D. Bangladesh and Afghanistan
ExplanationWhat is the minimum period of residence required in India for citizenship by naturalisation (general category)?
C. 11 years out of last 14 years
ExplanationArticle 15 of the Indian Constitution prohibits discrimination on which grounds?
B. On grounds of religion race caste sex or place of birth
ExplanationThe right of a minor who has renounced Indian citizenship to resume it is available:
B. Within one year of attaining majority (age 18)
ExplanationThe Citizenship (Amendment) Act 2019 was challenged in the Supreme Court primarily on the basis of violation of which constitutional provision?
B. Article 14 (right to equality) and secular basic structure
ExplanationArticle 5 of the Indian Constitution deals with which of the following?
C. Citizenship at commencement of Constitution
ExplanationThe Citizenship (Amendment) Act 2019 reduces the residency requirement for naturalisation to 5 years for minorities from Pakistan Bangladesh and Afghanistan. This amendment is to Clause __ of Section __ of the Citizenship Act 1955.
B. Proviso to Section 6(1) and the Third Schedule
ExplanationWhich of the following is correct about the Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) card?
C. OCI holders cannot vote or hold constitutional offices
ExplanationArticle 19 of the Indian Constitution guarantees six freedoms. Which of the following groups correctly identifies ALL six freedoms?
B. Speech expression assembly association movement residence and profession
ExplanationWhich Article of the Indian Constitution provides that a person shall not be a citizen of India if they voluntarily acquire citizenship of a foreign state?
C. Article 9
ExplanationWhich part of the Indian Constitution guarantees Fundamental Rights?
B. Part III
ExplanationWhich committee/body of the Constituent Assembly dealt with the Draft Articles on Citizenship?
B. Drafting Committee chaired by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
ExplanationWhich of the following is NOT a mode of acquiring Indian citizenship under the Citizenship Act 1955?
C. Purchase
ExplanationIndian Citizenship MCQs: Articles 5–11 and the Citizenship Act, 1955 Read More »