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Indian Polity and Constitution MCQs

This section covers essential Indian Polity questions, focusing on the Constitution, the Preamble, Fundamental Rights, and the roles of the President and Parliament. It’s designed to help you master the key concepts and legal frameworks frequently tested in competitive exams

Practice Questions on Citizenship topic for UPSC and state PSC exams

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Practice Questions on Citizenship

1. Citizenship provisions in Indian Constitution are contained in:

 
 
 
 

2. Which Article empowers Parliament to make law on citizenship?

 
 
 
 

3. India provides for:

 
 
 
 

4. A person domiciled in India at commencement (26 Jan 1950) became citizen under Article 5 if:

 
 
 
 

5. Article 6 deals with citizenship of persons migrating from:

 
 
 
 

6. Cut-off date for automatic citizenship for Pakistan migrants under Article 6 is:

 
 
 
 

7. Article 7 deals with migrants who went to Pakistan but later returned to India:

 
 
 
 

8. Article 8 provides citizenship for Persons of Indian Origin residing outside India:

 
 
 
 

9. Under Article 9, a person voluntarily acquiring foreign citizenship:

 
 
 
 

10. Article 10 states citizenship continues subject to:

 
 
 
 

11. Citizenship Act was first enacted in:

 
 
 
 

12. Citizenship by birth in India originally (1955 Act) was based on:

 
 
 
 

13. Citizenship by birth was restricted by 1986 Amendment to require:

 
 
 
 

14. After Citizenship Amendment Act 2003, for birth on/after 3 Dec 2004, requirement is:

 
 
 
 

15. Citizenship by descent for person born outside India on/after 26 Jan 1950 but before 10 Dec 1992 required:

 
 
 
 

16. 1992 Amendment to Citizenship Act provided:

 
 
 
 

17. For child born abroad on/after 3 Dec 2004, citizenship by descent requires:

 
 
 
 

18. Citizenship by registration under Section 5 is available to:

 
 
 
 

19. Minimum residence for naturalization under Section 6 (general) is:

 
 
 
 

20. Citizenship by naturalization requires applicant to:

 
 
 
 

21. Citizenship by incorporation of territory is under:

 
 
 
 

22. Loss of citizenship by renunciation is under:

 
 
 
 

23. Automatic termination of citizenship on acquiring foreign citizenship is under:

 
 
 
 

24. Deprivation of citizenship by government is under:

 
 
 
 

25. Which ground is NOT valid for deprivation under Section 10?

 
 
 
 

26. Illegal migrant is defined in Citizenship Act as:

 
 
 
 

27. Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) scheme introduced by:

 
 
 
 

28. OCI cardholders do NOT enjoy:

 
 
 
 

29. PIO card scheme merged with OCI by:

 
 
 
 

30. NRI is:

 
 
 
 

31. Citizenship Amendment Act 2019 provides expedited citizenship to:

 
 
 
 

32. CAA 2019 does NOT apply to:

 
 
 
 

33. Assam Accord cut-off for citizenship is:

 
 
 
 

34. National Register of Citizens (NRC) first prepared for Assam in:

 
 
 
 

35. Which right is available only to citizens, not to foreigners?

 
 
 
 

36. Right to equality before law (Article 14) is available to:

 
 
 
 

37. Which constitutional post requires citizenship by birth only? Trick:

 
 
 
 

38. Can a company be a citizen?

 
 
 
 

39. Domicile in India for Article 5 means:

 
 
 
 

40. Person of Indian Origin (PIO) earlier meant:

 
 
 
 

41. OCI can be cancelled for:

 
 
 
 

42. Citizenship at commencement did NOT automatically include:

 
 
 
 

43. Which state enjoys special citizenship provisions? None:

 
 
 
 

44. Proof of citizenship in India is:

 
 
 
 

45. The Citizenship Rules are framed under:

 
 
 
 

46. A child born in India to foreign diplomats:

 
 
 
 

47. Renunciation of citizenship by parent affects minor child:

 
 
 
 

48. Deprivation order under Section 10 requires:

 
 
 
 

49. Long Term Visa (LTV) holders from CAA countries can apply for citizenship after:

 
 
 
 

50. Which amendment introduced concept of ‘Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder’?

 
 
 
 


Practice Questions on Citizenship

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citizenship of india mcqs

Practice Questions on Citizenship topic for UPSC and state PSC exams Read More »

April 2026 (3rd Week) Current affairs Practice Questions

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Apr 2026 – Week 3 Current Affairs MCQ (15-21 Apr)

Fresh 15-question weekly practice set with 5 easy, 5 medium and 5 difficult questions for PSC exam revision.

Practice 2026 Weekly Current Affairs MCQ

Q1. KABIL is associated with which strategic sector?

Easy
  1. Critical minerals
  2. Textile exports
  3. Food grains procurement
  4. Urban policing
Show Answer
Answer: A. Critical minerals
KABIL works to secure overseas critical mineral assets, including lithium resources.

Q2. The PM MUDRA Yojana was launched in which year?

Easy
  1. 2014
  2. 2015
  3. 2018
  4. 2020
Show Answer
Answer: B. 2015
PM MUDRA Yojana was launched in April 2015 to support micro and small entrepreneurs with collateral-free loans.

Q3. The Women’s Reservation Act provides what quota for women?

Easy
  1. 10%
  2. 25%
  3. 33%
  4. 50%
Show Answer
Answer: C. 33%
The Act provides one-third reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.

Q4. India approved its first semiconductor SEZ at which location?

Easy
  1. Dholera
  2. Pune
  3. Noida
  4. Warangal
Show Answer
Answer: A. Dholera
Dholera in Gujarat was highlighted for India’s first semiconductor SEZ approval.

Q5. India’s nuclear power target for 2047 is:

Easy
  1. 25 GW
  2. 50 GW
  3. 75 GW
  4. 100 GW
Show Answer
Answer: D. 100 GW
India has set a long-term goal of achieving 100 GW nuclear power capacity by 2047.

Q6. KABIL’s Argentina clearance is important mainly because Argentina is part of which resource-rich region?

Medium
  1. Lithium Triangle
  2. Ring of Fire
  3. Sahel Belt
  4. Arctic Circle
Show Answer
Answer: A. Lithium Triangle
Argentina is part of the Lithium Triangle, a region important for battery minerals and energy transition supply chains.

Q7. PM MUDRA loans are commonly classified into which three categories?

Medium
  1. Shishu, Kishor and Tarun
  2. Gold, Silver and Bronze
  3. Gram, Nagar and Mahanagar
  4. Basic, Standard and Premium
Show Answer
Answer: A. Shishu, Kishor and Tarun
MUDRA classifies loans by size into Shishu, Kishor and Tarun categories.

Q8. Parliament being adjourned sine die means:

Medium
  1. The sitting is adjourned without naming a day for the next sitting
  2. The House is dissolved immediately
  3. The bill is automatically passed
  4. The President resigns
Show Answer
Answer: A. The sitting is adjourned without naming a day for the next sitting
Sine die means without assigning a future date for resumption of the sitting.

Q9. AP Pashu Kisan Credit Card Scheme is linked with credit support for:

Medium
  1. Livestock and animal husbandry activities
  2. Semiconductor exports
  3. Higher education loans only
  4. Port infrastructure only
Show Answer
Answer: A. Livestock and animal husbandry activities
The scheme is meant to support livestock-based livelihoods and animal husbandry needs.

Q10. Project Punarvika in Andhra Pradesh is associated with support for:

Medium
  1. Children with rare diseases
  2. River interlinking
  3. Police recruitment
  4. Organic textile exports
Show Answer
Answer: A. Children with rare diseases
Project Punarvika was launched to help children affected by rare diseases.

Q11. Consider Women’s Reservation: 1. It provides 33% reservation. 2. It covers Lok Sabha and State Assemblies. 3. It is linked with the 106th Constitutional Amendment. Which is correct?

Difficult
  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3
All three statements reflect the key exam points around the Women’s Reservation Act.

Q12. Which pair is correctly matched?

Difficult
  1. Dholera – Semiconductor SEZ
  2. KABIL – Food subsidy
  3. MUDRA – Nuclear reactors
  4. Sine die – Question Hour extension
Show Answer
Answer: A. Dholera – Semiconductor SEZ
Dholera is linked with the semiconductor SEZ, while KABIL concerns critical minerals and MUDRA concerns micro enterprise loans.

Q13. Why are lithium assets strategically important for India?

Difficult
  1. They support batteries, electric mobility and energy storage supply chains
  2. They replace parliamentary elections
  3. They are used only for traditional irrigation
  4. They are unrelated to green technology
Show Answer
Answer: A. They support batteries, electric mobility and energy storage supply chains
Lithium is a key mineral for batteries, EVs and renewable-energy storage systems.

Q14. India-China SCO engagement after Ladakh de-escalation is significant mainly for:

Difficult
  1. Regional diplomacy and border-stability signalling
  2. A new domestic tax slab
  3. A new Ramsar notification
  4. A direct change in Article 80
Show Answer
Answer: A. Regional diplomacy and border-stability signalling
Such engagement matters for foreign policy because it signals diplomatic channels after border tensions.

Q15. Which statement best links the Week 3 economy and technology topics?

Difficult
  1. MUDRA supports micro-enterprises, while semiconductor and lithium initiatives strengthen strategic industrial capacity
  2. MUDRA funds only satellites and KABIL runs elections
  3. Semiconductor SEZs are unrelated to manufacturing
  4. Lithium is mainly a food crop
Show Answer
Answer: A. MUDRA supports micro-enterprises, while semiconductor and lithium initiatives strengthen strategic industrial capacity
The topics together cover inclusive enterprise finance and strategic industrial supply chains.

April 2026 (3rd Week) Current affairs Practice Questions Read More »

April 2026 (2nd Week) Current affairs Practice Questions

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Apr 2026 – Week 2 Current Affairs MCQ (8-14 Apr)

Fresh 15-question weekly practice set with 5 easy, 5 medium and 5 difficult questions for PSC exam revision.

Practice 2026 Weekly Current Affairs MCQ

Q1. Harivansh Narayan Singh was nominated to the Rajya Sabha under which constitutional article?

Easy
  1. Article 79
  2. Article 80
  3. Article 84
  4. Article 249
Show Answer
Answer: B. Article 80
Article 80 deals with the composition of the Rajya Sabha, including members nominated by the President.

Q2. What is the maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha?

Easy
  1. 238
  2. 245
  3. 250
  4. 552
Show Answer
Answer: C. 250
The Constitution provides a maximum Rajya Sabha strength of 250 members: 238 elected and 12 nominated.

Q3. Mahatma Jyotiba Phule started the first girls school at Bhide Wada, Pune in which year?

Easy
  1. 1827
  2. 1848
  3. 1873
  4. 1888
Show Answer
Answer: B. 1848
Jyotiba Phule and Savitribai Phule pioneered women’s education by starting a girls school in Pune in 1848.

Q4. Satyashodhak Samaj was founded by Jyotiba Phule in which year?

Easy
  1. 1848
  2. 1857
  3. 1873
  4. 1905
Show Answer
Answer: C. 1873
Satyashodhak Samaj was founded in 1873 to fight caste discrimination and promote social equality.

Q5. The GeM Womaniya initiative primarily focuses on which group?

Easy
  1. Women entrepreneurs
  2. Retired soldiers
  3. Urban local bodies
  4. Railway employees
Show Answer
Answer: A. Women entrepreneurs
Womaniya is a GeM initiative to improve market access for women entrepreneurs and women-led enterprises.

Q6. Rajya Sabha is called a permanent House because:

Medium
  1. It is never dissolved
  2. All members serve for life
  3. It controls all Money Bills
  4. It has no elected members
Show Answer
Answer: A. It is never dissolved
Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution; one-third of its members retire every two years.

Q7. Which book by Jyotiba Phule criticised caste oppression and compared it with slavery?

Medium
  1. Gulamgiri
  2. Anandamath
  3. Hind Swaraj
  4. Arthashastra
Show Answer
Answer: A. Gulamgiri
Gulamgiri, published in 1873, is one of Phule’s best-known critiques of caste hierarchy.

Q8. India’s decision to ban new HFC projects after 2027 is linked with which international climate-ozone framework?

Medium
  1. Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol
  2. Paris Peace Treaty
  3. Kyoto Protocol only
  4. Basel Convention only
Show Answer
Answer: A. Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol
The Kigali Amendment targets phasedown of hydrofluorocarbons, which are powerful greenhouse gases.

Q9. The Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place on which date?

Medium
  1. 10 April 1919
  2. 13 April 1919
  3. 15 August 1919
  4. 26 January 1920
Show Answer
Answer: B. 13 April 1919
The massacre occurred at Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar on 13 April 1919.

Q10. Government e-Marketplace, often seen in news as GeM, is mainly used for:

Medium
  1. Public procurement of goods and services
  2. Conducting general elections
  3. Filing income tax returns only
  4. Issuing passports
Show Answer
Answer: A. Public procurement of goods and services
GeM is an online platform for procurement by government departments and public sector organisations.

Q11. Consider Rajya Sabha: 1. Its members have a 6-year term. 2. One-third retire every two years. 3. Its Chairman is the Vice-President of India. Which statements are correct?

Difficult
  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3
All three statements are correct and are core features of the Council of States.

Q12. Which pair is correctly matched?

Difficult
  1. Article 249 – Parliament can legislate on State List if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution
  2. Article 312 – Money Bill certification
  3. Article 80 – Emergency proclamation
  4. Article 79 – Fundamental Duties
Show Answer
Answer: A. Article 249 – Parliament can legislate on State List if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution
Article 249 gives Rajya Sabha a special federal role over State List matters in national interest.

Q13. The title Mahatma was conferred on Jyotiba Phule in 1888 by:

Difficult
  1. Vithalrao Krishnaji Vandekar
  2. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
  3. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
  4. Dadabhai Naoroji
Show Answer
Answer: A. Vithalrao Krishnaji Vandekar
Phule received the title Mahatma in 1888 in recognition of his service to social reform.

Q14. Which combination is most accurate about HFCs?

Difficult
  1. They are greenhouse gases targeted for phasedown under the Kigali Amendment
  2. They are only natural fertilisers
  3. They are ozone-friendly and have no climate impact
  4. They are protected under the Ramsar Convention
Show Answer
Answer: A. They are greenhouse gases targeted for phasedown under the Kigali Amendment
HFCs do not deplete ozone like older CFCs, but they have high global warming potential.

Q15. Which statement best explains why Rajya Sabha nominations matter for exams?

Difficult
  1. They test Article 80, nominated-member fields and the federal composition of Parliament
  2. They abolish elections to Parliament
  3. They convert Rajya Sabha into a state assembly
  4. They remove the role of the President
Show Answer
Answer: A. They test Article 80, nominated-member fields and the federal composition of Parliament
Nominations connect current affairs with polity basics: composition, nominated seats and constitutional articles.

April 2026 (2nd Week) Current affairs Practice Questions Read More »

Economic Impact of British Rule & Social Reforms

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📊 Chapter 13 · Modern India · Indian History

Economic Impact of British Rule & Social Reforms

Drain of wealth, deindustrialisation, land revenue systems; Raja Ram Mohan Roy, Arya Samaj, Brahmo Samaj, Widow Remarriage Act. Complete UPSC & PSC notes.

6
Sub-Topics
10
Practice MCQs
10
PYQs
⭐⭐⭐
Very High

📌 What You Will Learn in This Chapter

✅ Drain of wealth theory — Dadabhai Naoroji
✅ Deindustrialisation & destruction of handicrafts
✅ Permanent Settlement, Ryotwari, Mahalwari systems
✅ Raja Ram Mohan Roy — Brahmo Samaj, abolition of Sati (1829)
✅ Dayananda Saraswati — Arya Samaj (1875), Ramakrishna Mission
✅ Macaulay’s Minute (1835), Wood’s Despatch (1854)

📚 Chapter Sub-Topics — Click to Read
Topic 01
Economic Impact of British Rule
Drain of wealth theory (Dadabhai Naoroji), deindustrialisation, destruction of handicrafts, commercialisation of agriculture.

Read Now →

Topic 02
Land Revenue Systems
Permanent Settlement (Zamindari), Ryotwari, Mahalwari systems — features, areas, impact on peasants.

Read Now →

Topic 03
Social Reform Movements — Brahmo Samaj
Raja Ram Mohan Roy, Brahmo Samaj (1828), abolition of Sati (1829), widow remarriage, women’s education.

Read Now →

Topic 04
Arya Samaj & Other Reform Movements
Dayananda Saraswati, Arya Samaj (1875), Ramakrishna Mission, Vivekananda, Theosophical Society.

Read Now →

Topic 05
Educational Reforms & Press
Macaulay’s Minute (1835), Wood’s Despatch (1854), universities, vernacular press, role of education in nationalism.

Read Now →

Topic 06
Economic Impact & Social Reforms — Revision
Key reformers, acts, dates, complete chapter revision checklist.

Read Now →

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📝 Practice 10 MCQs
📋 Previous Year Questions
← Europeans & British
Next: National Movement →

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Outer Space Treaty and Current Affairs MCQs (April 2026)

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Choose an option to see the answer and explanation.

Question 1 of 10

The Outer Space Treaty was adopted in:

Correct.Explanation

The Outer Space Treaty (1967) is the foundation of international space law, establishing that space exploration must benefit all nations,, prohibit national appropriation of celestial bodies, and ban nuclear weapons in orbit. It requires space be used for peaceful purposes, allowing free exploration by all nations.

Wrong.Correct Answer

A. 1967

Explanation

The Outer Space Treaty (1967) is the foundation of international space law, establishing that space exploration must benefit all nations,, prohibit national appropriation of celestial bodies, and ban nuclear weapons in orbit. It requires space be used for peaceful purposes, allowing free exploration by all nations.

Question 2 of 10

India added how much wind power capacity in FY2025-26?

Correct.Explanation

India added a record 6.05 GW of wind power capacity during the financial year (FY) 2025-26. This milestone represents the highest-ever annual addition for the sector, surpassing the previous record of 5.5 GW set in FY 2016-17

Wrong.Correct Answer

A. 6.05 GW

Explanation

India added a record 6.05 GW of wind power capacity during the financial year (FY) 2025-26. This milestone represents the highest-ever annual addition for the sector, surpassing the previous record of 5.5 GW set in FY 2016-17

Question 3 of 10

Who became India’s first openly queer Member of Parliament in April 2026?

Correct.Explanation

Menaka Guruswamy, senior Supreme Court advocate, has become India’s first openly queer Member of Parliament (MP). Guruswamy took oath as a Rajya Sabha MP making a significant moment for LGBTQ+ visibility in India’s political life.

Wrong.Correct Answer

A. Menaka Guruswamy

Explanation

Menaka Guruswamy, senior Supreme Court advocate, has become India’s first openly queer Member of Parliament (MP). Guruswamy took oath as a Rajya Sabha MP making a significant moment for LGBTQ+ visibility in India’s political life.

Question 4 of 10

Kar Saathi launched in April 2026 is:

Correct.Explanation

Kar Saathi is an AI-powered digital assistant and chatbot platform launched by the Income Tax Department of India on April 2, 2026. It is integrated into a revamped official e-filing portal to simplify tax processes and provide round-the-clock support.

Wrong.Correct Answer

A. AI-driven taxpayer assistance chatbot

Explanation

Kar Saathi is an AI-powered digital assistant and chatbot platform launched by the Income Tax Department of India on April 2, 2026. It is integrated into a revamped official e-filing portal to simplify tax processes and provide round-the-clock support.

Question 5 of 10

Amaravati was designated as what in April 2026?

Correct.Explanation

In April 2026, Amaravati was officially designated as the sole and permanent capital of Andhra Pradesh. This was formalised through the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation (Amendment) Act, 2026, which received presidential assent on April 6, 2026.  The law is deemed to have come into force from June 2, 2024, which was the date Hyderabad officially ceased to be the common capital for Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.

Wrong.Correct Answer

A. Andhra Pradesh’s sole capital

Explanation

In April 2026, Amaravati was officially designated as the sole and permanent capital of Andhra Pradesh. This was formalised through the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation (Amendment) Act, 2026, which received presidential assent on April 6, 2026.  The law is deemed to have come into force from June 2, 2024, which was the date Hyderabad officially ceased to be the common capital for Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.

Question 6 of 10

India’s first digital census was announced with an outlay of:

Correct.Explanation

India’s first digital census, officially known as Census 2027, was announced with an approved outlay of ₹11,718.24 crore. This landmark administrative exercise, which marks the 16th Census of India and the 8th since Independence, officially commenced its first phase on April 1, 2026

Wrong.Correct Answer

A. ₹11,718 crore

Explanation

India’s first digital census, officially known as Census 2027, was announced with an approved outlay of ₹11,718.24 crore. This landmark administrative exercise, which marks the 16th Census of India and the 8th since Independence, officially commenced its first phase on April 1, 2026

Question 7 of 10

India’s higher education enrollment rate (April 2026) is:

Correct.Explanation

As of April 2026, the most recent provisional data indicates that India’s Higher Education Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) is 29.5% for the 2022-23 academic year, according to the All-India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE)

Wrong.Correct Answer

A. 29.5%

Explanation

As of April 2026, the most recent provisional data indicates that India’s Higher Education Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) is 29.5% for the 2022-23 academic year, according to the All-India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE)

Question 8 of 10

The Transgender Persons Amendment Bill 2026 controversy is about:

Correct.Explanation

The controversy surrounding the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026 in India centers on its move to replace self-determination of gender with medical verification and narrow the legal definition of transgender persons, which critics argue erodes rights established by the landmark 2014 NALSA judgment

Wrong.Correct Answer

A. Shifting from self-ID to institutional oversight

Explanation

The controversy surrounding the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026 in India centers on its move to replace self-determination of gender with medical verification and narrow the legal definition of transgender persons, which critics argue erodes rights established by the landmark 2014 NALSA judgment

Question 9 of 10

Purvanchal Mahotsav ‘Maati-9’ celebrates:

Correct.Explanation

Purvanchal Mahotsav ‘Maati-9’ celebrates the cultural heritage, art, cuisine, and tourism of the Purvanchal region. Centred on the theme “Maati” (Soil), the festival honors the profound connection between the people of the region and their ancestral roots.

Wrong.Correct Answer

A. Purvanchal region’s cultural heritage

Explanation

Purvanchal Mahotsav ‘Maati-9’ celebrates the cultural heritage, art, cuisine, and tourism of the Purvanchal region. Centred on the theme “Maati” (Soil), the festival honors the profound connection between the people of the region and their ancestral roots.

Question 10 of 10

Nagoya Protocol mentioned in news relates to:

Correct.Explanation

The Nagoya Protocol, frequently relates to the Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization (ABS). It is a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) adopted in 2010 and entered into force in 2014

Wrong.Correct Answer

A. Access and Benefit-sharing of genetic resources

Explanation

The Nagoya Protocol, frequently relates to the Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization (ABS). It is a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) adopted in 2010 and entered into force in 2014

Outer Space Treaty and Current Affairs MCQs (April 2026) Read More »

APPSC PYQs with Telugu Explanation

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Question 1 of 15

Which amendment is known as the ‘Mini Constitution’?
‘మినీ రాజ్యాంగం’ అని ఏ సవరణను పిలుస్తారు?

Correct.Explanation

వివరణ: 42వ రాజ్యాంగ సవరణను ‘మినీ రాజ్యాంగం’ అంటారు. 1976లో ఇందిరా గాంధీ హయాంలో ఇది వచ్చింది. Preamble కి ‘Socialist, Secular, Integrity’ పదాలు, Fundamental Duties ఇందులోనే చేరాయి.
Exam Trick: 44th Amendment దీనిని కొంత వెనక్కి తీసుకుంది.
Repeated: Group1-2016, Group2-2019, AEE-2022

Wrong.Correct Answer

A. 42nd Amendment

Explanation

వివరణ: 42వ రాజ్యాంగ సవరణను ‘మినీ రాజ్యాంగం’ అంటారు. 1976లో ఇందిరా గాంధీ హయాంలో ఇది వచ్చింది. Preamble కి ‘Socialist, Secular, Integrity’ పదాలు, Fundamental Duties ఇందులోనే చేరాయి.
Exam Trick: 44th Amendment దీనిని కొంత వెనక్కి తీసుకుంది.
Repeated: Group1-2016, Group2-2019, AEE-2022

Question 2 of 15

Who is the Chairman of NITI Aayog?
NITI ఆయోగ్ ఛైర్మన్ ఎవరు?

Correct.Explanation

వివరణ: NITI ఆయోగ్ ఛైర్మన్ పదవిని ప్రధాన మంత్రి నిర్వహిస్తారు. NITI = National Institution for Transforming India. 2015లో Planning Commission స్థానంలో వచ్చింది.
Exam Trick: Vice Chairman ని మాత్రం ప్రధాని నియమిస్తారు.
Repeated: Group2-2017, Group1-2019, Group4-2021

Wrong.Correct Answer

A. Prime Minister

Explanation

వివరణ: NITI ఆయోగ్ ఛైర్మన్ పదవిని ప్రధాన మంత్రి నిర్వహిస్తారు. NITI = National Institution for Transforming India. 2015లో Planning Commission స్థానంలో వచ్చింది.
Exam Trick: Vice Chairman ని మాత్రం ప్రధాని నియమిస్తారు.
Repeated: Group2-2017, Group1-2019, Group4-2021

Question 3 of 15

Fundamental Duties are included in which part of the Constitution?
ప్రాథమిక విధులు రాజ్యాంగంలో ఏ భాగంలో ఉన్నాయి?

Correct.Explanation

వివరణ: ప్రాథమిక విధులు Part IV-A లో ఉన్నాయి. వీటిని 42వ సవరణ ద్వారా 1976లో చేర్చారు. ప్రస్తుతం 11 విధులు ఉన్నాయి. Article 51A.
Exam Trick: Fundamental Rights Part III లో ఉంటాయి.
Repeated: Group1-2015, Group2-2018, Group2-2022

Wrong.Correct Answer

A. Part IV-A

Explanation

వివరణ: ప్రాథమిక విధులు Part IV-A లో ఉన్నాయి. వీటిని 42వ సవరణ ద్వారా 1976లో చేర్చారు. ప్రస్తుతం 11 విధులు ఉన్నాయి. Article 51A.
Exam Trick: Fundamental Rights Part III లో ఉంటాయి.
Repeated: Group1-2015, Group2-2018, Group2-2022

Question 4 of 15

The concept of Directive Principles of State Policy was borrowed from which country?
ఆదేశిక సూత్రాల భావనను ఏ దేశ రాజ్యాంగం నుండి తీసుకున్నాము?

Correct.Explanation

వివరణ: ఆదేశిక సూత్రాలు (DPSP) ఐర్లాండ్ రాజ్యాంగం నుండి తీసుకున్నాము. Part IV, Article 36-51.
Exam Trick: Fundamental Rights అమెరికా నుండి, పార్లమెంటరీ విధానం బ్రిటన్ నుండి.
Repeated: Group1-2014, Group2-2016, Group4-2020

Wrong.Correct Answer

A. Ireland

Explanation

వివరణ: ఆదేశిక సూత్రాలు (DPSP) ఐర్లాండ్ రాజ్యాంగం నుండి తీసుకున్నాము. Part IV, Article 36-51.
Exam Trick: Fundamental Rights అమెరికా నుండి, పార్లమెంటరీ విధానం బ్రిటన్ నుండి.
Repeated: Group1-2014, Group2-2016, Group4-2020

Question 5 of 15

Who appoints the Governor of a State?
రాష్ట్ర గవర్నర్‌ను ఎవరు నియమిస్తారు?

Correct.Explanation

వివరణ: రాష్ట్ర గవర్నర్‌ను రాష్ట్రపతి నియమిస్తారు. Article 155. పదవీకాలం 5 ఏళ్లు, కానీ రాష్ట్రపతి ఇష్టం మేరకు.
Exam Trick: ముఖ్యమంత్రి సలహా మేరకు కాదు.
Repeated: Group2-2015, Group1-2018, Group4-2023

Wrong.Correct Answer

A. President

Explanation

వివరణ: రాష్ట్ర గవర్నర్‌ను రాష్ట్రపతి నియమిస్తారు. Article 155. పదవీకాలం 5 ఏళ్లు, కానీ రాష్ట్రపతి ఇష్టం మేరకు.
Exam Trick: ముఖ్యమంత్రి సలహా మేరకు కాదు.
Repeated: Group2-2015, Group1-2018, Group4-2023

Question 6 of 15

Right to Education is guaranteed under which Article?
విద్యా హక్కు ఏ ఆర్టికల్ కింద హామీ ఇవ్వబడింది?

Correct.Explanation

వివరణ: విద్యా హక్కు Article 21A కింద హామీ. 86వ సవరణ 2002 ద్వారా 6-14 ఏళ్ల పిల్లలకు ఉచిత నిర్బంధ విద్య ప్రాథమిక హక్కు.
Exam Trick: RTE Act 2009, కానీ రాజ్యాంగ హక్కు 21A.
Repeated: Group1-2017, Group2-2020, Group4-2022

Wrong.Correct Answer

A. Article 21A

Explanation

వివరణ: విద్యా హక్కు Article 21A కింద హామీ. 86వ సవరణ 2002 ద్వారా 6-14 ఏళ్ల పిల్లలకు ఉచిత నిర్బంధ విద్య ప్రాథమిక హక్కు.
Exam Trick: RTE Act 2009, కానీ రాజ్యాంగ హక్కు 21A.
Repeated: Group1-2017, Group2-2020, Group4-2022

Question 7 of 15

Who is known as the Father of Local Self Government in India?
భారతదేశంలో స్థానిక స్వపరిపాలన పితామహుడు ఎవరు?

Correct.Explanation

వివరణ: లార్డ్ రిప్పన్‌ను స్థానిక స్వపరిపాలన పితామహుడు అంటారు. 1882లో ఆయన తీర్మానం వల్ల మున్సిపాలిటీలు, జిల్లా బోర్డులు బలపడ్డాయి.
Exam Trick: గాంధీజీ ‘గ్రామ స్వరాజ్యం’ చెప్పినా, పితామహుడు రిప్పన్.
Repeated: Group2-2014, Group1-2016, Group4-2019

Wrong.Correct Answer

A. Lord Ripon

Explanation

వివరణ: లార్డ్ రిప్పన్‌ను స్థానిక స్వపరిపాలన పితామహుడు అంటారు. 1882లో ఆయన తీర్మానం వల్ల మున్సిపాలిటీలు, జిల్లా బోర్డులు బలపడ్డాయి.
Exam Trick: గాంధీజీ ‘గ్రామ స్వరాజ్యం’ చెప్పినా, పితామహుడు రిప్పన్.
Repeated: Group2-2014, Group1-2016, Group4-2019

Question 8 of 15

How many members are nominated to Rajya Sabha by the President?
రాష్ట్రపతి రాజ్యసభకు ఎంత మంది సభ్యులను నామినేట్ చేస్తారు?

Correct.Explanation

వివరణ: రాష్ట్రపతి రాజ్యసభకు 12 మంది సభ్యులను నామినేట్ చేస్తారు. సాహిత్యం, శాస్త్రం, కళ, సామాజిక సేవ రంగాల్లో ప్రముఖులు. Article 80.
Exam Trick: లోక్‌సభకు 2 ఆంగ్లో-ఇండియన్స్ ఉండేవారు, ఇప్పుడు లేదు.
Repeated: Group1-2013, Group2-2017, Group2-2021

Wrong.Correct Answer

A. 12

Explanation

వివరణ: రాష్ట్రపతి రాజ్యసభకు 12 మంది సభ్యులను నామినేట్ చేస్తారు. సాహిత్యం, శాస్త్రం, కళ, సామాజిక సేవ రంగాల్లో ప్రముఖులు. Article 80.
Exam Trick: లోక్‌సభకు 2 ఆంగ్లో-ఇండియన్స్ ఉండేవారు, ఇప్పుడు లేదు.
Repeated: Group1-2013, Group2-2017, Group2-2021

Question 9 of 15

The President can declare emergency under Article 352 on which ground?
ఆర్టికల్ 352 కింద రాష్ట్రపతి ఏ కారణంతో అత్యవసర పరిస్థితి ప్రకటించవచ్చు?

Correct.Explanation

వివరణ: Article 352 కింద యుద్ధం, బాహ్య దురాక్రమణ, సాయుధ తిరుగుబాటు కారణంగా జాతీయ అత్యవసర పరిస్థితి ప్రకటించవచ్చు. ‘Internal disturbance’ ను 44th Amendment లో ‘armed rebellion’గా మార్చారు.
Repeated: Group1-2015, Group2-2018, Group1-2022

Wrong.Correct Answer

A. War or external aggression

Explanation

వివరణ: Article 352 కింద యుద్ధం, బాహ్య దురాక్రమణ, సాయుధ తిరుగుబాటు కారణంగా జాతీయ అత్యవసర పరిస్థితి ప్రకటించవచ్చు. ‘Internal disturbance’ ను 44th Amendment లో ‘armed rebellion’గా మార్చారు.
Repeated: Group1-2015, Group2-2018, Group1-2022

Question 10 of 15

Panchayati Raj system was first adopted by which state?
పంచాయతీ రాజ్ వ్యవస్థను మొదట ఏ రాష్ట్రం అమలు చేసింది?

Correct.Explanation

వివరణ: పంచాయతీ రాజ్ వ్యవస్థను మొదట రాజస్థాన్ అమలు చేసింది. 1959 అక్టోబర్ 2న నాగౌర్ జిల్లాలో ప్రారంభం. ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్ రెండో రాష్ట్రం.
Exam Trick: బల్వంత్ రాయ్ మెహతా కమిటీ సిఫారసు.
Repeated: Group2-2016, Group4-2018, Group1-2020

Wrong.Correct Answer

A. Rajasthan

Explanation

వివరణ: పంచాయతీ రాజ్ వ్యవస్థను మొదట రాజస్థాన్ అమలు చేసింది. 1959 అక్టోబర్ 2న నాగౌర్ జిల్లాలో ప్రారంభం. ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్ రెండో రాష్ట్రం.
Exam Trick: బల్వంత్ రాయ్ మెహతా కమిటీ సిఫారసు.
Repeated: Group2-2016, Group4-2018, Group1-2020

Question 11 of 15

Draksharama temple is located in which district?
ద్రాక్షారామం దేవాలయం ఏ జిల్లాలో ఉంది?

Correct.Explanation

వివరణ: ద్రాక్షారామం పంచారామ క్షేత్రాల్లో ఒకటి. తూర్పు గోదావరి జిల్లాలో ఉంది. దీనిని దక్షిణ కాశీ అంటారు. భీమేశ్వర స్వామి ప్రధాన దైవం.
Exam Trick: APPSC పంచారామాలు జిల్లాలతో కలిపి అడుగుతుంది.
Repeated: Group1-2018, Group2-2021, Group4-2023

Wrong.Correct Answer

A. East Godavari

Explanation

వివరణ: ద్రాక్షారామం పంచారామ క్షేత్రాల్లో ఒకటి. తూర్పు గోదావరి జిల్లాలో ఉంది. దీనిని దక్షిణ కాశీ అంటారు. భీమేశ్వర స్వామి ప్రధాన దైవం.
Exam Trick: APPSC పంచారామాలు జిల్లాలతో కలిపి అడుగుతుంది.
Repeated: Group1-2018, Group2-2021, Group4-2023

Question 12 of 15

Who was the first Chief Minister of Andhra State in 1953?
1953లో ఆంధ్ర రాష్ట్రానికి మొదటి ముఖ్యమంత్రి ఎవరు?

Correct.Explanation

వివరణ: 1953 అక్టోబర్ 1న ఏర్పడిన ఆంధ్ర రాష్ట్రానికి టంగుటూరి ప్రకాశం పంతులు మొదటి ముఖ్యమంత్రి. ఆయనను ‘ఆంధ్ర కేసరి’ అంటారు. రాజధాని కర్నూలు.
Repeated: Group1-2014, Group2-2017, Group4-2019

Wrong.Correct Answer

A. Tanguturi Prakasam

Explanation

వివరణ: 1953 అక్టోబర్ 1న ఏర్పడిన ఆంధ్ర రాష్ట్రానికి టంగుటూరి ప్రకాశం పంతులు మొదటి ముఖ్యమంత్రి. ఆయనను ‘ఆంధ్ర కేసరి’ అంటారు. రాజధాని కర్నూలు.
Repeated: Group1-2014, Group2-2017, Group4-2019

Question 13 of 15

Nagarjuna Sagar dam is built on which river?
నాగార్జున సాగర్ ప్రాజెక్టు ఏ నదిపై నిర్మించారు?

Correct.Explanation

వివరణ: నాగార్జున సాగర్ ప్రాజెక్టు కృష్ణా నదిపై నిర్మించారు. తెలంగాణ, ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్ సరిహద్దులో ఉంది. ప్రపంచంలోనే అతిపెద్ద మేసన్రీ డ్యామ్‌లలో ఒకటి.
Repeated: Group2-2015, Group4-2018, Group1-2021

Wrong.Correct Answer

A. Krishna

Explanation

వివరణ: నాగార్జున సాగర్ ప్రాజెక్టు కృష్ణా నదిపై నిర్మించారు. తెలంగాణ, ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్ సరిహద్దులో ఉంది. ప్రపంచంలోనే అతిపెద్ద మేసన్రీ డ్యామ్‌లలో ఒకటి.
Repeated: Group2-2015, Group4-2018, Group1-2021

Question 14 of 15

Lepakshi temple famous for hanging pillar is in which district?
వేలాడే స్తంభానికి ప్రసిద్ధి చెందిన లేపాక్షి దేవాలయం ఏ జిల్లాలో ఉంది?

Correct.Explanation

వివరణ: లేపాక్షి వీరభద్ర దేవాలయం శ్రీ సత్యసాయి జిల్లాలో ఉంది. పూర్వం అనంతపురం జిల్లా. 70 స్తంభాల్లో ఒకటి నేలను తాకకుండా వేలాడుతుంది. విజయనగర కాలం.
Repeated: Group1-2016, Group2-2019, Group4-2022

Wrong.Correct Answer

A. Sri Sathya Sai

Explanation

వివరణ: లేపాక్షి వీరభద్ర దేవాలయం శ్రీ సత్యసాయి జిల్లాలో ఉంది. పూర్వం అనంతపురం జిల్లా. 70 స్తంభాల్లో ఒకటి నేలను తాకకుండా వేలాడుతుంది. విజయనగర కాలం.
Repeated: Group1-2016, Group2-2019, Group4-2022

Question 15 of 15

Who was the founder of Satavahana dynasty?
శాతవాహన వంశ స్థాపకుడు ఎవరు?

Correct.Explanation

వివరణ: శాతవాహన వంశ స్థాపకుడు సిముకుడు. క్రీ.పూ. 230 ప్రాంతంలో రాజ్యం స్థాపించారు. రాజధాని మొదట పైఠాన్, తర్వాత అమరావతి.
Exam Trick: గౌతమీపుత్ర శాతకర్ణి గొప్ప రాజు, కానీ స్థాపకుడు కాదు.
Repeated: Group1-2013, Group2-2016, Group2-2020

Wrong.Correct Answer

A. Simuka

Explanation

వివరణ: శాతవాహన వంశ స్థాపకుడు సిముకుడు. క్రీ.పూ. 230 ప్రాంతంలో రాజ్యం స్థాపించారు. రాజధాని మొదట పైఠాన్, తర్వాత అమరావతి.
Exam Trick: గౌతమీపుత్ర శాతకర్ణి గొప్ప రాజు, కానీ స్థాపకుడు కాదు.
Repeated: Group1-2013, Group2-2016, Group2-2020

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